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here. I see where the word is translated based on the different texts used. Is the word used in KJV "mules" in Old English a different meaning than what we commonly know it to mean today? It seems like the text the KJV used maybe was in error? Just curious.

2007-01-12 01:13:09 · 3 answers · asked by Buckeye G 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

The meaning of the original Hebrew (For this word) is uncertain. So, what translators do is try to interpret the word from the context of the sentence (What the sentence is talking about).
The KJV translated mules as later we see Donkeys. In the translation of the Latin Vulgate they probably figured Mule did not fit the context and used Hot Springs. We could actually use Oasis in place of Mules/Hot Water and still relay the context. Basically Chapter 36 relays Geneology. I assume the two brothers found something of importance in the Desert (That why it mentioned), which was water, they already had Mules.

2007-01-12 01:19:43 · answer #1 · answered by Snaglefritz 7 · 0 0

Error is a strong word. As new discoveries about the original language becomes available, the texts change. There are instances of where the wrong word was used, because several words have the same meaning. However, there is not one instance where using the wrong word has affected truth or theology.

2007-01-12 09:20:56 · answer #2 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 0 1

There are a lot of errors in the KJV

2007-01-12 09:18:55 · answer #3 · answered by bubu 4 · 1 0

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