2007-01-11 11:11:41 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, it was his title. That was in Greek, and is similar in meaning to the Hebrew word, "Messiah" used in the Hebrew Scriptures. He was "Jesus, who is called the Christ."
Back then, they didn't use last names like we do in Western Culture. They were defined by their family...Jesus' full name would have been Yeshua Ben Joseph (Jesus son of Joseph).
2007-01-11 11:19:08 · answer #1 · answered by Gumbi 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Your question is honestly irrelevant to the message and teachings of the Bible. The Gospels, Matthew, Mark, Luke and John are named after their respective human writers. The Apostle Paul wrote the Lion's share (definite, undesirable pun meant) of the recent testomony, and not in any respect one among them is termed after him. this does not make their contents any a lot less or better substantial. The Gospels element out Mary because she changed into the vessel that God chosen to provide start to Jesus. not something better. not even a e book author. at the same time as Jesus changed into conceived, Mary turned right into a virgin. in a while, that's amazingly sparkling from Biblical money owed that Mary and Joseph had different human little ones. (Jude is Jesus' organic and organic 1/2 brother.) She did not die a virgin. She isn't and may not be deified. the purely human that benefits deification is Jesus Christ, because he's totally God, totally human and entirely infallible all mutually. Jesus does not favor a particular e book of the Bible named after Him because the total note is about Him. each and each and every e book of the former testomony both prophesies His coming, has a protagonist that symbolizes some function of Him as a Kinsman Redeemer, or analyzes the impact of His coming. Shalom.
2016-12-02 03:39:18 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
During that time, if a person needed to be distinguished between one Jesus or another, they would add the patronymic afterward.
In the case of Jesus Christ, He likely would have been known as Yeshua Ben Yosef. (Jesus, son of Joseph.) "Jesus himself was about thirty years old when he began his ministry. He was (so it was thought) the son of Joseph..." (Luke 3:23)
As others have already mentioned, Christ was His title, not His name.
2007-01-11 11:20:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Christ means Messiah.
Jesus the Messiah.
His mother was Mary.
2007-01-11 11:17:12 · answer #4 · answered by The Question Man 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The word Christ, Christos, is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word Messias, means "anointed." It's a title, not a last name.
2007-01-11 11:16:54 · answer #5 · answered by Dreaming of You 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Not, Christ was a title, not a name.
2007-01-11 11:16:08 · answer #6 · answered by Randy G 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Back then, people were named for their fathers, or a famous ancestor, or the place where they were born, or the place where they started their careers.
Jesus was probably called the equivalent of Jesus Nazarene, after Nazareth, a city where he spent a lot of time.
2007-01-11 11:29:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Christ means anointed one. It was not His last name.
2007-01-11 12:04:44 · answer #8 · answered by angel 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yeah, I don't think people had last names at that time.
I have never heard a last name ascribed to Jesus.
2007-01-11 11:17:37 · answer #9 · answered by I'm Still Here 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
he is jesus of nazareth they did not have last names as we know them in those times
2007-01-11 11:15:16 · answer #10 · answered by Denver_faithful 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋