the dog is 9 months old , we have had to castraite, as 1 testical had not dropped , so we can not stud the dog now, the vet said , the condition would run in the dogs family.and the breeder would of known about this condition. would i beable to get the £250 vet bill back from the breader. regards marc
2007-01-11 09:29:22 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Pets ➔ Dogs
Looks like you live in England or one of the European countries that uses the pound as you asked about getting your 250 pounds back. Laws in your country and the USA are different but if you bought the dog under a written and notarized document detailing the puppy was in good health and was for show purposes, you should have a valid legal recourse in your country to obtain your money back.
Contact a barrister in your country and he should be able to give you legal advice on this matter.
2007-01-11 09:36:21 · answer #1 · answered by attyvette 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Cryptorchadism is not always seen in the stud of your puppy, but could be from a familial line that was not traced. A good breeder is one who traces these things but if you didn't pay alot and research the breeder well then you get what you pay for. Good breeders have health guarantees for a certain amount of time. Look into what you can do legally if you signed something saying that you purchased the dog for breeding. If you are in fact a breeder yourself than thing would probably have been done. If you are a "hobby breeder" that doesn't have experience breeding maybe it was better off.
2007-01-11 17:37:16 · answer #2 · answered by bassetmom 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, being it was only a puppy, how could you or the breeder know for sure if it was even show quality? Nobody can guarantee that in a puppy. A show/breeding PROSPECT is just that, a PROSPECT, things can go wrong. *IF* it was bought as a show prospect, is the possibility of replacing the pup, if it didn't turn, out in your contract?
If it was bought as a PET, then you got a PET, that is not meant for breeding. Stud dogs *should* be the very best in the breed, they are, after all, available to all and can sire many litters.
Being you are asking such a question on here, it tells me you are a pet owner who was hoping on making a few bucks off your pet quality dog.
2007-01-11 21:12:42 · answer #3 · answered by whpptwmn 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did you buy the dog specifically as a breeding dog? Most likely not. A reputable breeder only sells 1-2 puppies as breeding prospects, if they sell them at all. Most keep them for themselves. The rest are sold to pet homes and should be spayed/nuetered.
Yes, an undescended testicle IS genetic. But not not in the way you are thinking. Unless your breeder was a crappy back yard breeder, and didn't care. A male dog can throw a male puppy with only 1 testicle. You fix that puppy to reduce the chance of passing down that gene. But the other male puppies could be just fine.
I don't think you'll be able to get any of your money back.
2007-01-11 18:16:41 · answer #4 · answered by jkc92618 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It seems evident that you live in th UK & I am not familiar with law there, but in the US you would have to notify the breeder as soon as the problem was discovered in order to have a legitimate claim against him. Since you have waited until the dog is 9 mos old to come forth you may just be out of luck - but then again, I'm not familiar with English law. Good luck.
2007-01-15 15:14:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Go where u bought the dog or call them, maybe they will pay u if u tell u may do something legal about this.
2007-01-11 17:38:38 · answer #6 · answered by sunflare63 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no you should have got a written guaranty that gives you enough time to take the pet to the vet and have it cheeked out good luck
2007-01-11 17:46:41 · answer #7 · answered by gary y 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋