I have a question regarding the commandment which says: "though shalt not covet thy neighbor's wife". Clearly, this is addressed to a man. This isn't just a case of "he" referring to both man and humanity, since in this case wife has to refer to the woman. That means the question must be addressed to a man. Does this mean that women are not worthy of having a similar commandment issued to them (from the point of view of the bible) or does it mean that it's OK for a woman to "coveting her neighbor's husband"?
2007-01-10 21:07:17 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Men are the visual creatures with the wondering eyes. Women only look when their needs are not met. There is a difference. It applies to both genders however.
2007-01-10 21:12:05 · answer #1 · answered by Pilgrim 4 · 3⤊ 2⤋
The Ten Commandments are not the only rules issued to the israelites located in the Bible. If you read the rest of the chapter, or other chapters, for example, Leviticus, it addresses both sexes and coveting.
2007-01-11 05:14:03 · answer #2 · answered by 1 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Please read my writting below.
By the way, in that time, more than 3000 yrs ago, it is not common any where else in the world, for women to covet other man. The women cannot support the man financially, nor care more more than 2 family.
Pal, you are out of context.
Hum . . . Would you want to be more specific?
I think the law is especially kind to woman.
I happened to read some Ancient Near east Law, Law equivalent to that period of time. They were discriminating the slave and women and uphold man and the Noble.
There is one law mentioned in those nations, that if some one killed another person, he/ must be punished. But if he is a man, he may redeemed himself at certain rate, and he is of noble family, he will have less punished. That is unfair.
But in Old T, Children of any heritage is equal. Men & women who sin are also treated equally. If women is rape in city, she and the rapist must be punished, but if she is rape in countryside, she is spared, and the male is punished.
That is fair isn't it? For in the city, if she make noise, people will come to help. If she is a good girl, she should not be out after the sun goes down. Even in today, people from south Asia still do not allow their unmarried girls to get out beside schools, let alone at night. That is the context.
I also remember another issue where people always said God is unfair to girls. That is, the temple is only for the girls. In fact, before Solomon's time, it was the Tabernacle (Tent). Why? So unfair?
If one is familiar to the situation of those days, the temple of the neighbouring nations have prostitutes (both male and female, more female) inside the temple serving the worshiper.
More so for the male, to use their sperm as offering, as a sign of fertility. The Greek and the Indian (Hindu) having the same kind of worship.
God does not want the girls of Israelite to be mistaken as prostitutes, or to be treated as one, thus forbitting the female to be in the inner court of the temple.
So, tell me how is it unfair to gals? I think God is very fair.
Again, if you notice, God even allow female to be prophets, and also as leaders some time. Look at Esther, Ruth, and one Female Judges in Book of Judges. If God is unfair to women, how is it so?
When we read an ancient text, please do not read in today context. Please remember that you are reading something written more than 3000 yrs ago. Please do not use today 'lenses' to view ancient text, just like the American, using their 'lenses' to view the whole world, and not been sensitive to the other culture.
Should you have any other issue, you may email me. Wish you well
Cheers,
2007-01-11 05:13:12 · answer #3 · answered by Melvin C 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
if you look at the bible, it seem to make Females out in a bad light form the beginning. lets start with Genesis. God creates man in his own image, he them takes a small part of Adam, his rib as i remember, and creates Eve, implying that females are just a small part of man. Where God says that it is not good that man should be alone. So God made a woman as a "helper suitable for him." them Eve is responsible for the first sin, she then convinces Adam to do the same thing. many would blame the snake for the first sin, but why would the snake convince eve and not Adam. could this be implying that females are the weaker sex?
OK lets just skip explaining everything, it will take to long. i am just going to find some quotes:
Wives, submit to your husbands as to the Lord. (Ephesians 5:22)
Now as the church submits to Christ, so also wives should submit to their husbands in everything. (Ephesians 5:24)
Wives, submit to your husbands, as is fitting in the Lord. (Colossians 3:18)
2007-01-11 05:41:34 · answer #4 · answered by Patrick M 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Look, God says, that commiting adultry is a sin. So whether it's a man or woman.
And adultry is doing a sexual relationship with people who are not your husband. So the Bible says that there should be no sex before marriage whatever the reasons are.
A girl ahould stay virgin till marriage, and if her husban dies, ahe can remarry, but if he is still alive, ahe should stay with him. And te same to men.
2007-01-11 05:17:23 · answer #5 · answered by Zsazsa A 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You didn't know women are considered property when it comes to Christianity?
2007-01-11 05:17:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, well, the Bible is pretty sexist.
2007-01-11 05:22:26 · answer #7 · answered by Voodoid 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It applies to both.
2007-01-11 05:13:53 · answer #8 · answered by tracy211968 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It means that it is OK for a woman to have sex with her neighbors husband.
I am moving in next door to you tomorrow!
Michael.
2007-01-11 05:12:43 · answer #9 · answered by Michael, Count de Berçon 2 · 3⤊ 4⤋