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since they share a name, were they one and the same just living in different places, or were they the same and then they just split off?

2007-01-10 16:02:52 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

2 answers

Nobody knows for sure.
It can be a relation but the origin is too backdated to have a sure source.
From Wikipedia
The Veneti are believed to have been originally a centrum Indo-European people dwelling in the area of contemporary Poland. Their heritage is attributed to Pre-Slavic hydronyms found in the Vistula and Oder river basins. To a certain extent, these hydronyms fall within the scope of Old European hydronyms established by Hans Krahe (see Old European hydronymy).

It is not clear whether they were related to the Adriatic Veneti, a people whose language is attested in inscriptions dating from 6th to 1st centuries BC and is known to have been particularly closely related to the Italic languages (see Venetic language). Hydronyms attributed to the Baltic Veneti show resemblances to those attested in the area of the Adriatic Veneti (in Northeastern Italy) as well as those attested in the Western Balkans that are attributed to Illyrians (for examples, linguistic comparisons and further reference see Gołąb 1992: 263-268), all of which may point to a possible connection between these ancient Indo-European peoples. However, some scholars may prefer to view the Baltic Veneti as a distinct group.

2007-01-10 16:45:13 · answer #1 · answered by martox45 7 · 0 0

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2016-11-28 03:30:10 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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