The Bible in all of its incarnations and forms has always been altered to fit the politics of the times in which it was being compiled or revised. With today's emphasis on the question of gay marriage, it occurs to me that when you remove the political aspects of everything, what you are left with is the assertion by all versions of the Bible that sex outside of wedlock is wrong (and no, not ALL versions of the Bible condemn gays, especially when you realize that the word 'homosexual' did not exist until the 18th century!)
The question is; with this one unifying theme concurrent through all versions of the Bible and most other holy scriptures, why then are gays not allowed to marry. Would it not be in the best interest of the church, the state, and society for gays to adhere to the same tenets as heterosexuals?
Rabid proponents from either side of this arguement need not answer this question.
2007-01-10 05:19:04 · 20 answers · asked by Vatican Lokey 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Hi VL
I am struggling to get anyone to give me a quote from any version of the bible which shows God laying down the law - other than the 10 Commandments.
My interpretation of all the quotes and references given as an argument to show that Homosexuality is a "sin" are the opinions of the people who either wrote the piece or (more likely) translated it.
Nowhere in the Christian Gods 10 laws (commandments) is there condemnation of homosexuality.
And as for "rabid proponants - need not answer" Yeah right!
You saw the response i got to my question - LOL
Regards T2D
2007-01-11 07:00:26 · answer #1 · answered by Tim2Die 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
At this time the courts are not overriding the will of the people, the voters box, and altering divorce laws. Protesting at the courts would not change the divorce rates. Changing the laws and changing the way society views marriage will. So it is more effective to work in those arenas then by picketing courts. However in the case of same sex marriages, so far every single attempt to legal it at the ballot pox has failed. Everywhere that is has become legal it has either been forced on to the state by a court that has struck down existing laws, or by a governing body that legalized it without a vote of the people or even an ability by those people to elect the members of that body (Congress legalizing it in DC). Since that is where the same sex laws are currently being made (and not the ballot box where it should be done) that is where the protest needs to be made. If divorce courts where to suddenly start altering marriage laws from the bench, you would see protest there also. They are not, so such a protest would be pointless. (You should have been smart enough to think of that.....)
2016-05-23 04:59:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since this is essentially a religious problem, the real question is why the government should be involved in marriage at all. How bad would it be if the government just stopped recognising marriages altogether? People could have whatever ceremonies they want to. Government involvement would be limited to enforcing whatever contracts "married" people agreed to (shared assets, responsibility for children, etc.). Churches, businesses, individuals could decide whether they would recognise certain types of marriages without government force in the background.
2007-01-12 06:02:35 · answer #3 · answered by Faeldaz M 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Your thesis fails on its first point. The Bible does not change. Some people see fit to change their interpretation to fit a present situation. In fact, just about everyting you say is either patently false or totally irrelavent.
Fact is, every Bible in every incarnation condemns the homosexual act as a perversion and an abomination. (Your aside that the word 'homosexual' did not exist until the 18th century is specious.) Something described in such terms should not be condoned or sanction by society. PERIOD!
2007-01-10 05:29:01 · answer #4 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Gays can get married. No sex outside of marriage is a sin anyway. I think most people have moved on a bit now, those that haven't need to. Its the 21st century, not the dark ages.
2007-01-10 05:28:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
In many instances in the Bible, it speaks of a man leaving his father's house to be united with his wife, as one flesh.
It is spoken of in Genesis and again by Jesus in the New Testament. Also, God said in the Old Testament (time of Moses where hundreds of do and don't were issued) that for a man to lay with another man is detestable.
And the Bible addresses human sexual immorality frequently. Based on this, especially the description of man and woman uniting, I conclude that man & man or woman & woman was not intended by God and certainly not blessed as a marriage union.
~Don't hate me, I don't make the rules.
2007-01-10 05:26:30 · answer #6 · answered by Molly 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The bible hasn't changed, people have and they in turn change the bible to suit their needs. Even though the words "gay" and "homosexual" are not in the bible, we know that God condemns these actions with other terms such as: men lying with men, men used for unnatural purposes and let's not forget that God did destroy the city of Sodom because "men became full of lust and what was unnatural towards one another". And just because the bible mostly mentions men, I'm sure that God would not exclude women.
2007-01-10 05:42:40 · answer #7 · answered by ivanmarion2000 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Because God said in Genesis. "For a man will leave his Father and Mother, find and cleave to his wife, and they two shall become one flesh." Whenever homosexual activity is mentioned in the Bible, it is said to be an abomination to the Lord. The Devil has done a great job in convincing soceity that homosexuals cannot change while there are now Christians who received that miracle and are now attracted to the opposite sex.
2007-01-10 05:29:10 · answer #8 · answered by mathias1314 3 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Because male and female Marriage is foreordained of GOD. Between Man And Woman not Man and Man or Woman and Woman. If gays get married they are in defiance of gods plan. It would defeat the whole purpose in why we are on earth.TO HAVE A FAMILY. You need man and woman to have children. God didnt create adam & steve. It is adam and eve. Today we have a LIVING prophet and he will tell you that God himself Condems Homosexuality. Why do you think the Roman Empire Fell -HOMOSEXUALITY. Being gay is going against God and his eternal plan for Families and happiness. Homosexuality is a mental disorder, it is unnatural If you dont believe me then your in denial
2007-01-10 05:35:30 · answer #9 · answered by big pappy 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
being a gay or lesbian is not a sin. the bible does not condemn homosexuality. you can not find verses that being a gay or lesbian is a sin. Gay is still a male and lesbian is still a female, as long as they are not involve in immorality they will not be condemn.
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2007-01-10 06:01:51 · answer #10 · answered by jun 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋