If he is omnipotent, then he has the capacity of shaping reality the way he wants to, thus denying the existence of a fixed future, therefore he cannot know the future, and is not omniscient. If he is omniscient, he knows what his actions are, and his future is already decided for himself too, by his power of omniscience. Therefore he has to follow a fixed path, and cannot do anything outside of it. Therefore he is not omnipotent.
2007-01-09 10:57:13 · 10 answers · asked by Dr.Do 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The christians still don't get it though. They keep insisting that god gave us free will. And no matter how many times I tell them that omniscience rules that out, they still can't understand it...
2007-01-09 11:09:10 · answer #1 · answered by RED MIST! 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Peace!
God is omnipotent, omniscient and omnipresent. If I explain this and cite verses and doctrines to support my answer it would be an essay. So here is what I will do. I will give you the verses which explain why He is so and you look them up yourself. If you need clarification post another question.
Omnipotent - Genesis 17,1: Exodus 6,3
Omniscient - Psalm 139,7; Proverbs 5,21
Omnipresent - Psalm 139; Jeremiah 23,23
I hope this helps. God bless!
2007-01-09 19:17:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Or we can go back to the basic definiation of a key word:
"Meanings of omnipotence
Between people of different faiths, or indeed even between people of the same faith, the term omnipotent has been used to connote a number of different positions. These positions include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) God is able to do anything, i. e. the answer to "can God do x" is always "yes", regardless of what x may be. However this leads to obvious contradictions and is not a view held by philosophically aware theologians.
(2) God is able to do anything that is logically possible for God to do.
(3) God is able to do anything that God chooses to do.
(4) God is able to do anything that is in accord with his own nature (thus for instance if it is a logical consequence of God's nature that what God speaks is truth then God is not able to lie).
Under many philosophical defintions of the term "God" senses 2, 3 and 4 can be shown to be equivalent. However on all understandings of Omniopotence it is generally held that God is able to intervene in the world by superseding the laws of physics and probability, since they are not part of his nature, but constructs of a physical world."
In short, the argument of logic is not as simply as you would make it out to be. So my answer to your question is still "yes."
2007-01-09 19:05:39 · answer #3 · answered by Church Music Girl 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
True, but I have always heard this example used with his omnibenevolence. It works either way.
God cannot be an immovable object AND an unstoppable force at the same time.
2007-01-09 19:03:42 · answer #4 · answered by rawlings12345 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes he is omnipotent, omniscient, and omnipresent at all times
2007-01-09 19:03:29 · answer #5 · answered by Jackson 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Excuse me Dr.? Check that report one more time, he is both + omnipresent.
2007-01-09 19:07:47 · answer #6 · answered by Miss k 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You stole this from yahoo askers and revised it
2007-01-09 19:03:32 · answer #7 · answered by Story teller 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
your wisdom is no match for god's infinite wisdom. you are only a human.
2007-01-09 19:03:23 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
hmmm. that IS a conundrum!
2007-01-09 19:02:06 · answer #9 · answered by Josephus 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
why are you trying so complicate things
2007-01-09 19:04:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋