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We all speak English, I know that but, America is the youngest out of the English speaking countries. I was wondering:
1. Why, with an exception of the different accents Americans can have depending on their region, Americans are considered to not have accents.
2. Where are the accents of the countries I mentioned from?
3. If the English came to America and took their language ith them, when exactly did they start talking like modern Americans?P.S. I know America was not called America when the English came. When I talk about America being the youngest country out of the ones I mentioned, I mean it was a country when it got a government.

Please answer as many of these questions as you can.

2007-01-09 07:39:52 · 5 answers · asked by addict for dramatic 4 in Society & Culture Languages

5 answers

Just a hunch here, but I would guess the reason many people consider American's English to sound as if it does not have an accent is because for a very long time now, many non-english people have been introduced to Americans by the media Americans have put out. Because until recently, the most widely distributed and heard media was American, non-English speakers grew accustomed to our way of speaking instead of the British and Australian. Therefore, the Brits and Aussies sounded like they had accents and John Wayne's "pilgrim [pill-grum]" sounded right. Just a guess - good question I think.

2007-01-09 07:49:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Most other english speaking countries do consider americans as having american accents. All the countries you mentioned derived from England (if that's what you mean). By the second generation the english accent started to fade esp. when other europeans started to migrate to America.

2007-01-09 15:52:23 · answer #2 · answered by Raven 5 · 0 0

1. Americans do have accents! I don't know where you got the idea that they are considered not to?

2. Can you clarify this question? I mean, obviously a Scottish accent is from Scotland, and English one is from England etc, but that seems to simple an answer. If you mean what have they developed from, they are the culmination of centuries of absorbing different languages.

3. America developed its own form of English from the American Revolution onwards. It developed differently from British English because it was influenced by different racial groups arriving in their country. I believe that they were also influenced by native American languages, which would not be the case in England.

2007-01-09 15:47:53 · answer #3 · answered by agneisq 3 · 1 1

I don't consider anyone "sounding" like me to have an accent. And most others think the same. But even in the same state, there are accents, and local dialect. Here where I am in East central Illinois, we say yup. This is yes other places. We have different expressions, too.
I don't know about when the accents changed, but where I grew up was German, Norwegian, and Swedish. But they spoke English, so I suppose this is how it started.

2007-01-09 15:51:31 · answer #4 · answered by RB 7 · 0 0

Americans not considered to have accents? Well, we have the New Englanders, Mid-Westerners, Southerners, then the west coast. In my opinion the west coast accent is the hardest to detect, while the New England accent is the worst to listen to.

2007-01-09 15:48:31 · answer #5 · answered by mad_mav70 6 · 0 0

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