How can Xtians expect us Jews to accept the New Testamant and J***** ?

Question

When it is a work of such fanatic anti-semitic hatred ?

I agree with Shmuel Golding,"Any Jew who can pay homage to the New Testament or allow himself to believe in it, is, in my opinion in the same category as a Jew who tries to justify Hitler's Mein Kampf or, as one who covers up for the deeds of the Nazis."

example
John 8:44,47(KJV) – (44) Ye [Jews] are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye [Jews] will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.(47) He that is of God heareth God's words: ye [Jews] therefore hear them not, because ye [Jews] are not of God

1 Thessalonians 2:13-16(KJV) (15) they please not God, and are contrary to all men: (16) for the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost.

Answer 1

Messianics and Jews for Jesus - ARE NOT JEWS - they are Christians!!! Real Jews cannot and would not deify a man! Sh'ma Yisrael Adonai Elohaynu Adonai Echad (Hear, Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is ONE).

For the people who keep pointing to the prophesies in the Tanakh (Old Testament) as proof of the "New" Testament's validity - it would be no difficult thing for the authors of the Gospels, who obviously had some education in the Jewish scriptures, to pepper their narrative with proof-prophesies (which they often got wrong) in order to lend credence to their stories. Since so many of the claims of the Christian church defied pure logic and were outside of any reasonably correct historical validity, the desire to support these claims obviously led to the New Testament's authors searching the Old Testament for passages which could be construed to be prophetic support ... this is particularly true withrespect to the claims concerning Jesus. In order for the words of Jesus to apply, they often needed to be reworked or manufactured so as to provide appropriate doctrine where and when needed.

The Gospels don't even agree on the story of the Crucifixion!! By the time Rome and Xtianity have come to a happy median the person who wrote John had cleaned things up and shifted the blame from the Romans to the Jews (who were having "problems" with the Romans at the time).

In thegospel known as Mark, the author has Jesus initially judged by the High Priest and the Sanhedrin (Jewish council) - ON PASSOVER!!!??? I'm sorry, but this would not have occurred. Neither the Perushim nor the Saducees would have violated the festival (major) by holding court.

In Matthew, Jesus (Yeshua) the Jew becomes "Jesus the self-hating Jewish anti-Semite" in his excessively vitriolic statements contra Jews. I surmise that the author of Matthew had an axe to grind and turned up the hatred in his text.

In Luke, the author removes the inconsistency of a Jewish court/council meeting on the holidy and turns it into a Jewish mob (but the mocking and beating by Roman guards in Mark's story becomes Jewish guards in Luke's story).

By John, the specific Jewish groups (Pharisees, Sanduccees, etc) are now simply THE JEWS and Yeshua now seems stridently anti-Jesish and anti-Law. Someone got smart and moved the crucifixion date up so that it didn't conflict with the Passover (See: John 8:57 - Jesus is almost 50 when he's crucified????!!!). And by now, for early Xtians, the Romans weren't so bad - so why piss them off by writing a Gospel in which they were the bad guys? I know - it was THE JEWS!!!

Kol Tuv

Answer 2

You greatly misunderstand the scripture my friend. Yes Jesus was talking to Jews, but it is implied to ALL. He didn't say BECAUSE they were Jews, they were of the devil. Jesus was a Jew, does that mean He was speaking about himself also?

I would advise you to read the whole N.T. before you start pigeon-holing verses. I'm Jewish, and I have been blessed that God has revealed Himself and opened my eyes to see Joshua for who He is, the messiah, king of David the fulfillment of all the Messianic prophesies and the atonement for sin. How can you brother explain the types (God says he reveals truths through types) of the messiah in the Torah? The passover lamb just a coincidence? Why did God allow for the destruction of the temple? The sacrifice for sin has been accomplished. The bloodshed of animals only covered sin, but did not take away sin. This had to be done by the suffering messiah. The victorious messiah shall come soon and will split the mount of Olives and shall rule from Zion.

Rom 11:26 And in this way all Israel will be saved, as it is written, “The Deliverer will come from Zion, he will banish ungodliness from Jacob”;


Luke 24:44 Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.”

You know brother that there is NO forgiveness without the shedding of inocent blood. There is no high preist from Levi nor a temple do you think that something happened that has fulfilled the Law to accomplish what the Law could not do? Or do you think that God has taken away the only possible way for sin to be atoned?

Ezek 36:26 And I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you. And I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh.

7 What then? Israel failed to obtain what it was seeking. The elect obtained it, but the rest were hardened, 8 as it is written, “God gave them a spirit of stupor, eyes that would not see and ears that would not hear, down to this very day.” 9 And David says, “Let their table become a snare and a trap, a stumbling block and a retribution for them; 10 let their eyes be darkened so that they cannot see, and bend their backs forever.” 11 So I ask, did they stumble in order that they might fall? By no means! Rather through their trespass salvation has come to the Gentiles, so as to make Israel jealous. 12 Now if their trespass means riches for the world, and if their failure means riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their full inclusion mean!
The Holy Bible : English standard version. 2001 (Ro 11:7). Wheaton: Standard Bible Society.

Answer 3

Thousands of Jews priests and Levites became Christians at that very time.Whenever they used the word" Jews",as you were using ,they were talking about the corrupt leadership of the Jews.They were upset with Jesus because they could see they were losing prestige and power.It was all a money game especially with the Saducess.They didn't believe in a soul or spiritual afterlife,all they cared about was the here and now(that's why they were Sad-you-see[joke])More Pharisees became Christians because they believed ALL the Torah not just some of it.
Take the High Priest Annas at the time of Jesus.He was so corrupt the Romans sat him down and put his son-in-law Caiaphas up as high Priest.
The problem is we all want to think our ancestors were perfect but the truth is the Jews of the first century had wandered far from the truth of God.God told them in Deuteronomy that they would be scattered by a people of a foreign language if they didn't stay straight and he did.70 AD(CE) Israel really ceased to exist until 1948.
We as Christians in all the world are your only allies,the ones who would fight for you ,who else?Please name them ,I'd like to know.Also don't try to say Christians killed Jews in WWII,Hitler was not a Christian,no more than I"m a car if I stand in the garage.The truth is he killed 6 million Jews and close to 4 million Christians,Poles,Gypsies and Homos.

Answer 4

Wrong wrong wrong out of context and mis-quoted with proof to back it up that is empirical and irrefutable

Jhn 8:44 Ye are of [your] father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.


Jhn 8:45 And because I tell [you] the truth, ye believe me not.


Jhn 8:46 Which of you convinceth me of sin? And if I say the truth, why do ye not believe me?


Jhn 8:47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear [them] not, because ye are not of God.

It does not say Jews , nor does it refer to Jews. Gothca

Answer 5

Until the day comes when Jehovah comes to Israel and saves them from a huge army that is invading Jerusalem, and you as well as other Jews celebrate his coming as was foretold of in the Old Testament. And you see the nail prints in his hands wrists and feet. I don't expect you our your people to.
Stop worrying about it, just watch the news or be in Jerusalem when that day comes, you will know what to do.

I think Jesus was referring to in John 8:44 to the individual Jews he was talking to as following Lucifer (the Father of Lies) as their Father rather then Abraham.
The same can be said of any one who looks to lie and murder today, that they are following their father the devil, as they by their choices choose who they are.

Answer 6

You should look at the context. The word "Jews" in the NT clearly has different meanings in different contexts. Sometimes it refers to all Jews as we understand the term; sometimes it means "Judeans," that is, residents of Judea; often it refers to the Jewish authorities (many of whom were corrupt and collaborating with the Romans to the detriment of true Judaism).
The Jews are God's chosen people, so Christians are bound to respect them.

Answer 7

Funny, my Bible doesn't contain the word "Jews" after "ye." To the majority of us not trying to lie to people, we took the word ye to be referring to those that were clearly distorting God's words for their own purposes - which is similar to adding a word into scripture that wasn't originally there.

The only Jews Jesus ever spoke out against were those that were leading people away from God for their own fame and fortune. I can't imagine any true Jewish person having a problem with that.

Answer 8

It's not anti-Semitic hatred expressed here. In context, He was saying that they had lost their way, and had killed the Messiah.

The New Testament is the new covenant God has made.
Hebrews 8:7-12
For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no occasion sought for a second. For finding fault with them, He says,
"BEHOLD, DAYS ARE COMING, SAYS THE LORD,
WHEN I WILL EFFECT A NEW COVENANT
WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL AND WITH THE HOUSE OF JUDAH;
NOT LIKE THE COVENANT WHICH I MADE WITH THEIR FATHERS
ON THE DAY WHEN I TOOK THEM BY THE HAND
TO LEAD THEM OUT OF THE LAND OF EGYPT;
FOR THEY DID NOT CONTINUE IN MY COVENANT,
AND I DID NOT CARE FOR THEM, SAYS THE LORD.
"FOR THIS IS THE COVENANT THAT I WILL MAKE WITH THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
AFTER THOSE DAYS, SAYS THE LORD:
I WILL PUT MY LAWS INTO THEIR MINDS,
AND I WILL WRITE THEM ON THEIR HEARTS.
AND I WILL BE THEIR GOD,
AND THEY SHALL BE MY PEOPLE.
"AND THEY SHALL NOT TEACH EVERYONE HIS FELLOW CITIZEN,
AND EVERYONE HIS BROTHER, SAYING, 'KNOW THE LORD,'
FOR ALL WILL KNOW ME,
FROM THE LEAST TO THE GREATEST OF THEM.
"FOR I WILL BE MERCIFUL TO THEIR INIQUITIES,
AND I WILL REMEMBER THEIR SINS NO MORE."

Read Hebrews 9,10 and Acts 2 for more information

Answer 9

Your question is better phrased as:

"How can Xtians expect us Jews to accept the NT and JC when it completely goes against the scriptures we were given by G-d?"

also Messianics are still not Jews no matter how hard they try.

Answer 10

I agree however it's not limited to anti-semitism this is the same attitude Christians take toward the non-believer, at least they are in partial agreement with the Jewish beliefs.