Although of course this is both a stupid and obnoxious question, it has a point. Except of course the Hebrew word for Holy and the Hebrew word for marriage are the same word. The Holy Virgin Mary is married to God in the spiritual sense. Just as she is queen. A fascinating but little known fact is that the gebidah or Queen under the Davidic line of Kings, Jesus being the last, was not the wife of the King but the mother of the reigning King. As they were polygamous, it would have required the King to pick which wife was queen and that would lead to all kinds of problem. So, if you notice in scripture the queens are the mother of the king not the wife. So, when Abinojah needs assistance he does not go to the Solomon, he goes to Bathsheeba his mother for help.
Although he is King and he reigns, it was custom in the Near East to defer to the queen, hence giving meaning to the passage in the wedding feast of Cana. Queens did not command, but Kings obeyed. Everyone but the Queen rose in the presence of the King. The King would rise when the Queen entered the room, not the other way around. Glorify thy mother was a literal command.
So, if one accepts the texts, and you must since you acknowledge that God got Mary pregnant, then you must read the Greek annunciation words of the angel, "Chaire kecharitomine!" For kecharitomine to have meaning, Mary must have been holy and without sin since her conception. Luke contrasts this with his description of John the Baptist who receives the Spirit only at birth. So Mary is quite literally Holy and hence in the Hebrew set aside for God. Just a note, the Hebrew word for marriage and holy is actually the phrase we would say as "set aside," or "set apart."
So Mary by being set apart from birth and by accepting the birth with the words "be it done to me according to His will," then she was married to God.
She is the daughter and servant of the Most High and Supreme King and Father in Heaven. She is the mother of our Most Holy Lord and Master Jesus Christ and she is the Spouse of the Holy Spirit.
If you want to take the symbolism further you of course can. She is the living Ark of the Covenant and so on.
Finally, Revelations says it is the children of Mary who will get into Heaven. As that is you and me, do you not think you should not insult your mother?
2007-01-08 23:57:47
·
answer #1
·
answered by OPM 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
The birth of Jesus occured without the original sin. This means there was no sex invoved. So, God did not have sex to Mary. So, He didn't need to marry her. it was a divine action. It had nothing to do with the way in which we make babies.
And, by the way, God is not a Male. We refer to Him as Him becase we can't say He/She or It, because it would be disrespectful
2007-01-08 23:30:41
·
answer #2
·
answered by Ana 3
·
1⤊
1⤋
God has no favor to marry and His Holy Spirit stumbled on Mary and overshadowed her, to carry that who become Holy right into a body who might want to nurture it, a virgin named Mary who become of the royal line of King David. It become an act of holiness, for without this hassle-free experience none individuals might want to have the capacity to declare eternal life.
2016-12-28 12:32:57
·
answer #3
·
answered by ? 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
because God is a spirit and Mary was a human being. God doesn't have to physically marry some-one.
2007-01-08 23:31:12
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
you are committing unforgivable sin by accusing God to have sex with Mary. Read the bible so you may know and if don't do not ever ask question
2007-01-08 23:35:01
·
answer #5
·
answered by Jesus M 7
·
0⤊
1⤋
it says not to have sex outside of marriage but god didn't have sex with Mary he created the baby in her womb using the holy spirit
2007-01-08 23:29:59
·
answer #6
·
answered by bballboyrocks 2
·
1⤊
1⤋
Blessed be the name of Jesus, true God and true man.
Blessed be His most sacred heart.
Blessed be His most precious blood.
God married the blessed Virgin from all eternity, she is the Spouse of the Holy Spirit, and He gave her all His grace from the first moment of her existence, she is full of grace, the Immaculate Conception.
2007-01-08 23:33:01
·
answer #7
·
answered by carl 4
·
0⤊
2⤋
The solution is in the holy Quran.
005.017
In blasphemy indeed are those that say that God is Christ the son of Mary. Say: "Who then hath the least power against God, if His will were to destroy Christ the son of Mary, his mother, and all every - one that is on the earth? For to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth, and all that is between. He createth what He pleaseth. For God hath power over all things."
005.116
And behold! God will say: "O Jesus the son of Mary! Didst thou say unto men, worship me and my mother as gods in derogation of God'?" He will say: "Glory to Thee! never could I say what I had no right (to say). Had I said such a thing, thou wouldst indeed have known it. Thou knowest what is in my heart, Thou I know not what is in Thine. For Thou knowest in full all that is hidden.
005.117
"Never said I to them aught except what Thou didst command me to say, to wit, 'worship God, my Lord and your Lord'; and I was a witness over them whilst I dwelt amongst them; when Thou didst take me up Thou wast the Watcher over them, and Thou art a witness to all things.
005.118
"If Thou dost punish them, they are Thy servant: If Thou dost forgive them, Thou art the Exalted in power, the Wise."
God knows best
Peace and Love
2007-01-09 03:04:34
·
answer #8
·
answered by mil's 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
i have never met anyone before with these thoughts
May one day u will get a real answer for ur question
2007-01-08 23:46:47
·
answer #9
·
answered by الحقيقة 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
One of the many contradictions.
2007-01-08 23:28:40
·
answer #10
·
answered by INDRAG? 6
·
2⤊
1⤋