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15 answers

YES!!!!!

2007-01-08 10:41:50 · answer #1 · answered by Josephus 4 · 2 1

Jesus Christ, in his Sermon on the Mount, stated: “Moreover it was said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ However, I say to you that everyone divorcing his wife, except on account of fornication, makes her a subject for adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.” (Mt 5:31, 32) Also, after telling the Pharisees that the Mosaic concession of divorcing their wives was not the arrangement that had prevailed “from the beginning,” Jesus said: “I say to you that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery.” (Mt 19:8, 9) Today, generally, distinction is made between “fornicators” and “adulterers.” According to modern usage, those guilty of fornication are unmarried persons who willingly have sexual relations with someone of the opposite sex. Adulterers are married persons who willingly have sexual relations with a member of the opposite sex who is not their legal marriage mate. The term “fornication” is a rendering of the Greek word pornei′a and includes all forms of illicit sexual relations outside of Scriptural marriage. Hence, Jesus’ words at Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 mean that the only divorce ground that actually severs the marriage bond is pornei′a on the part of one’s marriage mate. The follower of Christ may avail himself of that divorce provision if that is his desire, and such a divorce would free him to marry an eligible Christian.—1Co 7:39.

2007-01-08 10:51:27 · answer #2 · answered by papa G 6 · 1 0

Adultery is considered a sin in all religions.


The Bible decrees the death sentence for both the adulterer and the adulteress:

“If a man commits adultery with his neighbour's wife, both the adulterer and the adulteress shall be put to death.” (Lev. 20:10).

Islam also equally punishes both the adulterer and the adulteress:


“(As for) the fornicatress and the fornicator, flog each of them, (giving) a hundred stripes, and let not pity for them detain you in the matter of obedience to Allah, if you believe in Allah and the last day, and let a party of believers witness their chastisement.”(24:2).



However, the Qur’anic definition of adultery is very different from the Biblical definition. Adultery, according to the Qur’an, is the involvement of a married man or a married woman in an extramarital affair. The Bible only considers the extramarital affair of a married woman as adultery.



"If a man is found sleeping with another man's wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel" (Deuteronomy 22:22).



"If a man commits adultery with another man's wife both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death" (Leviticus 20:10).



“To keep you from your neighbour's wife, from the smooth tongue of the adulteress. Lust not in your heart after her beauty, let her not captivate you with her glance! For the price of a loose woman may be scarcely a loaf of bread, But if she is married, she is a trap for your precious life. Can a man take fire to his bosom, and his garments not burned? Or can a man walk on live coals, and his feet not be scorched? So with him who goes in to his neighbour's wife-- none who touches her shall go unpunished.” (Proverbs, 6:24-:29).

According to the Biblical definition, if a married man sleeps with an unmarried woman, this is not considered a crime at all. The married man who has extramarital affairs with unmarried women is not an adulterer and the unmarried women involved with him are not adulteresses. The crime of adultery is committed only when a man, whether married or single, sleeps with a married woman. In this case the man is considered adulterer, even if he is not married, and the woman is considered adulteress. In short, adultery is any illicit sexual intercourse involving a married woman. The extramarital affair of a married man is not per se a crime in the Bible.

Why is the dual moral standard? According to Encyclopaedia Judaica, the wife was considered to be the husband's possession and adultery constituted a violation of the husband's exclusive right to her; the wife as the husband's possession had no such right to him[15].

That is, if a man had sexual intercourse with a married woman, he would be violating the property of another man and, thus, he should be punished. To the present day in Israel, if a married man indulges in an extramarital affair with an unmarried woman, his children by that woman are considered legitimate. But, if a married woman has an affair with another man, whether married or not married, her children by that man are not only illegitimate but they are considered bastards and are forbidden to marry any other Jews except converts and other bastards. This ban is handed down to the children's descendants for ten generations until the taint of adultery is presumably weakened[16].

The Qur’an, on the other hand, never considers any woman to be the possession of any man. The Qur’an eloquently describes the relationship between the spouses by saying:

“And among His signs is that He created for you mates from among yourselves, that you may dwell in tranquillity with them and He has put love and mercy between your hearts: verily in that are signs for those who reflect" (30:21).

This is the Qur’anic conception of marriage: love, mercy, and tranquillity, not possession and double standards.

2007-01-08 10:47:25 · answer #3 · answered by MUHAMMAD 3 · 1 1

in the event that they have a valid divorce they're loose to marry, the question is have they have been given a valid divorce. If the divorce become for frivolous motives the divorce isn't valid and that they are nonetheless married. If the marriage settlement become broken by applying any immorality then the divorce is valid and that they are loose.

2016-12-12 07:15:04 · answer #4 · answered by goslin 4 · 0 0

According to the Bible, yes. But then, that makes about 75% of considered an adulterer or an adulteress. Please remember that the Bible was rewritten by the learned folks who had ulterior motives when 'translating' and re-writing. As in, keep the poor and powerless poor and powerless, lest they rise up and take our Castle, our Jewels, and discover our secrets and lies of just how we obtained our wealth and power...ie: by being an adulterer ourselves. Think about it. Good luck and P.S. If you are in Love and free, go for it!

2007-01-08 10:46:59 · answer #5 · answered by La_Liona 4 · 1 2

In Matthew, as stated several times here, Jesus allows divorce only in the case of adultery. However, in Mark and Luke, he gives no exception by stating the following: (Luke passage not included for brevity sake)

Mark 10:2-12:

2 And Pharisees came up and in order to test him asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?" 3 He answered them, "What did Moses command you?" 4 They said, "Moses allowed a man to write a certificate of divorce, and to put her away." 5 But Jesus said to them, "For your hardness of heart he wrote you this commandment. 6 But from the beginning of creation, 'God made them male and female.' 7 'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, 8 and the two shall become one flesh.' So they are no longer two but one flesh. 9 What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder." 10 And in the house the disciples asked him again about this matter. 11 And he said to them, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another, commits adultery against her; 12 and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."

Clearly, the Bible is contradictory on the subject. Jewish law made exception for adultery, as did Jesus according to Matthew, but then he forbade it according to Mark and Luke. Just to add another twist, Jesus also stated that a man committed adultery simply by having the urge to do so, even without actually doing the physical act.

2007-01-09 09:04:15 · answer #6 · answered by True Grits 3 · 1 0

this was a difficult question to me-then I heard-why punish the innocent for the others guilt-If the other party committed adultry-which continues after the divorce too-because it is not from God only adultry is cause for divorce-then the guilty party would have had to be stoned to death-in Jesus time-thus making the innocent party free to marry-as it is today. Peace in Jesus amazing grace.

2007-01-08 11:07:31 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

According to the Bible
Mat 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
There are other scriptures on this subject. I certainly hope this helps! I will remember you in my prayers.

2007-01-08 11:01:44 · answer #8 · answered by bumpy 4 2 · 1 1

There is one acceptable, scriptural reason for divorce. That is adultery. Let's assume for a second you're talking about yourself. If the person you wish to marry got a divorce because his/her mate cheated, then NO you would not be committing adultery.

2007-01-08 10:47:09 · answer #9 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 1 1

Yes - and God will judge all adulterer- according - this does not make you bad or good -

2007-01-08 10:47:16 · answer #10 · answered by Yahoo 2 · 1 0

It would depend. The Bible allows divorce due to adultery. The question of remarriage has been debated, but I think the remarriage of someone who divorced because of adultery would be allowable.

2007-01-08 10:44:46 · answer #11 · answered by The Notorious Doctor Zoom Zoom 6 · 3 1

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