In the Old Testament, Satan was not directly working to destroy God but rather he was allowed to inflict destructive forces on humans to make them aware of their wrong doings.
But in the New Testament, Satan is portrayed as having so much authority and an evil being actually working against God.
How and why did this change come about?
2007-01-08 08:15:36 · 5 answers · asked by CuriousKelly22 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
People read!! I didn't ask to hear about your view on Satan's creation or downfall.
If you aren't capable of answering the question, then why make yourself look stupid?
2007-01-08 08:36:15 · update #1
I think Satan got an extreme makeover when the Church decided to go global and tried to gobble up the competing religions. The early middle ages I think.
2007-01-08 08:18:28 · answer #1 · answered by Phoenix Fire Mystery 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A very good question. Although God often uses people to accomplish His will in the world, His people are free from enslavement, so I don't think the analogy of a pawns in a chess match is quite accurate, at least on God's side. More like soldiers, I think. Satan's "pawns," on the other hand, are literally enslaved by sin and death, so they truly are nothing more than tools, or weapons.
Satan has been God's enemy since before the creation of the earth. Therefore, he hates this world and everyone in it. His goal on Earth has never changed: to tempt and seduce us into becoming his mindless "pawns," which he then uses to attack our own (and his) Creator. He has used people for his evil purposes throughout the Old Testament times, the New Testament times (including the present day), and he will continue doing so until his final defeat. As we see in Job1:6-12 in the OT, and Luke 22:31 in the NT, Satan is able to communicate with God and he has always been well aware of God's sovereignty.
~EDIT~
Hey now, Curious Kelly, no need to get nasty. You're free to ask as you see fit, and we're free to answer as we see fit. If you don't like the answers you're getting, maybe you should examine your question. Peace!
2007-01-08 17:43:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
In the garden when he enticed Adam and Eve to eat of the forbidden fruit. The motive? Jealousy. Satan was a beautiful angel before the fall, that is why among his other names, he was called Lucifer, angel of Light. He became vain, to the point that he wanted the angels and man to worship him instead of Jehovah. From then on, he has always tried to turn man away from God. Look to the example of Job, even Jesus Christ in the Garden of Gethsemane. He tried to tempt Jesus Christ to serve him instead of Jehovah by promising Christ the riches of the world if only Christ would bow down before him and worship him.The classic battle between good and evil..
addendum: maybe you should analyze your question. You asked when and how, but you won't accept the true reasoning as to when and how events unfolded as to reach a point where it perplexed you. Also, how can you say he did not want to destroy God ? What about his puny attempt to discredit Jesus Christ. ? The reason why man turned bad was because he prodded them to rebel against God. From perfect man, Adam became an imperfect one, subject to temptation and sin . The reason why he has more influence as portrayed in the Greek (or new) testament is because like in the case of Adam, he has enticed a lot more of Adam's descendants to rebel and sin against God, and become his followers. Read the Bible... and please don't ask questions if you'd only resort to nasty name calling those people who thought you needed help...
2007-01-08 16:30:00 · answer #3 · answered by pilgrim 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Satan wanted the humans to worship him. He wanted so much to be a part of their world that he left his own possission to be married to a women. Genesis 6 and Jude 6
He told God that he didn't have a right to tell them what to do since they would learn on their own the right way to act.
They have had 6000 years of human existance and governments and rulers and so far they haven't been able to govern themselves. But they needed that chance to be able to do that.
To prove that Satan was the one that was lying not God.
They are not able to rule themselves.
It says: "It is not within man to govern his own steps."
2007-01-08 16:22:06 · answer #4 · answered by Steven 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There no contiridiction, it just says the same thing in a different way.
2007-01-08 16:18:32 · answer #5 · answered by Maurice H 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋