People interpret the Bible in the wrong trying to find excuses for their mistakes. For example when a person who really respects the Bible says homosexuality is wrong those who interpret the Bible the way they like say that God loves us all as an excuse. So, they read only what they find convenient.
Blasphemy against the holly spirit happens when a person makes a sin knowing that is bad and doesn't fell sorry.
Good question.
2007-01-08 07:41:23
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answer #1
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answered by Alex 5
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All the books of the Bible were not written in Hebrew. And although we know that some of the books were written in Hebrew or Latin, the originals do not exist. Hence, scholars sometimes are faced with translating Coptic, Syrian, or some other language. There are many, many translations of the Bible. Some people feel that parts of the Old Testament reflects the mind of men and not the mind of their "God". And some people do not believe in the Bible at all. Just like you say that "thou shall not kill" is open to interpretation, other people feel that other parts of the Bible are open to interpretation. No one person in the world can set the standard for what everyone else believes. That is just the way the world works! Have a great day!
2007-01-08 07:34:45
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The problem is, the hebrew word used means 'temple prostitute'. It does not mean homosexual.
The scholars of the KJV1611 did not have access to the same understanding of the ancient versions of Hebrew we have now, so they translated it as best they could -- sadly, the best they could do... was wrong.
The Old Testament does not mention homosexuality in the original texts. Only in translations.
Muslims understand this concept very well. In fact, the Qu'ran is considered valid ONLY in the original arabic, and any other language version is called an 'interpretation' because the translator has to 'interpret' certain words that have no direct one-to-one translation.
For example, the inuit people (the eskimos) have over a hundred words for snow, each one meaning a different firmness, moisture level, etc. However, the Pueblo indians had no word for snow at all. If an inuit were to meet a Pueblo and had to call all his forms of snow 'soft falling sky ice' in Pueblo, the detailed meaning of inuit would be lost. However, the Pueblo who learned inuit would have to understand all these distinctions.
2007-01-08 07:25:06
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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You are totally leaving out the New Testament, which overides some of the Old Testament stuff. Now, the reason why Jesus was villified by some is because he was revolutionizing the way in which the people of the time were worshiping God. Jesus did go against some old testament creed, like when he saves the woman from being stoned, which by the way, is not Mary Magdalene. If you are a liberal you'll get your liberal interpretation of the bible. If you are a conservative you'll get your conservative interpretation of the Bible. And the formula works for pious, vain, homophobic, humble, etc.
2007-01-08 07:34:44
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Bible believing people are commanded by God to separate from those who preach a false gospel.
Is The Catholic Church an Infallible Interpreter of the Bible? The answer is No.
The Scriptures nowhere indicate that God gave us an infallible interpreter of His Word but plainly reveal that He simply gave us His infallible Word.
The Bible teaches that each individual is responsible for himself and is not to blindly follow religious leaders. The only way to know for sure when this is happening is to be well educated in the scriptures yourself.
Jesus expected the people of His day to privately interpret the Scriptures.
He used such terms as "search the Scriptures" (John 5:39), "have you not read?" (Matt. 12:3; 12:5; 19:4;21:16,42; 22:31),
2007-01-08 07:28:13
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answer #5
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answered by House Speaker 3
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you're best that no translation of any rfile can ever have all the colors of meaning of the unique language. each time you translation right into a diverse language you run the prospect of dropping the somewhat some form of meaning a observe, or of introducing a shade of propose the English observe has that the unique does not. such because of the fact the English observe "love" having sexual connotations the place the Greek observe "agape" not at all does. additionally because of the fact the order of words is diverse in English then in Hebrew or Greek, a right away observe for observe translation may be very complicated to envision. So translations oftentimes will rearrange wording to make the diversities extra readable. they are no longer plenty use of they are no longer comprehensible. So gaining know-how of to envision the unique language is effectual. It facilitates you to make certain a number of those colors that must be ignored in a translation, yet in addition to be able to make certain that maximum Bibles on the industry at present are user-friendly and precise (as a hazard) translations of the unique. have been analyzing the unique languages for almost 20 years, yet nonetheless locate myself going back to English translations as that's complicated to tell others what the Bible says while it quote it in the unique. they shop telling me it rather is all "Greek" to them.
2016-11-27 20:23:00
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answer #6
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answered by donenfeld 4
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You're speaking of 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 and you are right, but I think that the text is referring to acting homosexuals since in every other passage where homosexuality is mentioned it says, "the act of homosexuality." and one more thing, the commandment is "Thou shalt not commit murder" not thou shalt not kill. But you're right about the interpretation of scripture, there are some passages that are mysteries to us, but the majority of scripture is plain and needs no explanation. But if you're talking about "Translation" of the scriptures being many, there are many different languages and language has been through many changes in the thousands of years that it's been since the books of the Bible were written. So, we just have to pray for the right interpretation and search as many different avenues as needed to find what the truth is.
God Bless You
2007-01-08 14:54:13
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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The bible was not written in English. That's the problem. Ancient languages don't translate directly. For example, if I say "street walker" you will either think of a prostitute, or someone who walks the streets. Which did I really mean?
Furthermore, the Bible is full of allegory that would be difficult to interpret even in the mother language.
2007-01-08 07:26:20
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answer #8
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answered by pinwheelbandit 5
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A person coulb be homosexual, that is he is harboring romantic feelings for the same sex, but does not think nor engage in homosexual acts...then he is not sinning. His feelings can be corrected. But if he does commit the act, he does sin. What if that person does not know the bible and engages in such activiies then later finds out its wrong? If he repents (ask for forgiveness and not do it again) he'll surely be forgiven...but if he deliberately goes on disobeying the law of God, that is blasphemy of the spirit.
2007-01-08 07:26:04
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answer #9
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answered by Gizelle K 3
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The question is, which of the OT laws did JC abolish in the NT? Also, since the gospels were written after the letters (not to mention they are the gospels) shouldn't they take precedence?
There is a lot of condemnation in the bible and a lot of forgiveness. It's obvious which side of the line you fall on. It's too bad so many of the Christian cults focus on the shalt nots instead of the blesseds.
2007-01-08 07:25:34
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answer #10
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answered by Dave P 7
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