Catholics: Mortal sins and venial sins?

Question

Why does catholic doctrine differenciate between these two. Please don't give me answers that are not in harmony with scripture. If you quote 1John 5:16 I believe the sin unto death is the unforgivable sin Jesus spoke of in Matthew 12:31. I don't wish to cause arguements just to make us think about what and why we believe in something.

Answer 1

+ Mortal and Venial Sin +

1 John 5:16-17 - If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly.

Luke 12:46-48 - Then that servant's master will come on an unexpected day and at an unknown hour and will punish him severely and assign him a place with the unfaithful. That servant who knew his master's will but did not make preparations nor act in accord with his will shall be beaten severely; and the servant who was ignorant of his master's will but acted in a way deserving of a severe beating shall be beaten only lightly. Much will be required of the person entrusted with much, and still more will be demanded of the person entrusted with more.

Catholics believe:

Mortal sin is a grave infraction of the law of God that destroys the divine life in the soul of the sinner (sanctifying grace), constituting a turn away from God. For a sin to be mortal, three conditions must be present: grave matter, full knowledge of the evil of the act, and full consent of the will.

Venial sin is a sin which does not destroy the divine life in the soul, as does mortal sin, though it diminishes and wounds it. Venial sin is the failure to observe necessary moderation, in lesser matters of the moral law, or in grave matters acting without full knowledge or complete consent.

But continual venial sin can slowly but surely totally separate you from God, placing you into the state of mortal sin.

http://www.usccb.org/catechism/text/pt3sect1chpt1art8.htm#1854

+ Sources of Doctrine +

The Catholic Church does not use Holy Scripture as the only basis of doctrine. It could not. The early Catholic church existed before and during the time that the New Testament was written (by Catholics).

There were hundreds of Christian writings during the first and second centuries. Which New Testament writings would become official was not fully decided until about 400 AD.

Catholics believe that the Holy Spirit was guiding the early church (and is guiding the church today) to make the correct choices about things like:
+ The Holy Trinity (which is also only hinted at in the Bible)
+ Going to church on Sunday instead of Saturday (which is actually directly against one of the Ten Commandments)
+ The Communion of Saints
+ Which writings include in the New Testament?

Things that are even more modern like
+ Slavery is bad. Slavery is never declared evil in the Bible. This was one of the justifications for slavery in the Confederate States.
+ Democracy is good. The Bible states that either God should be the leader of the nation like Israel before the kings or kings should be the leader, "Give to Caesar that which is Caesar's." This was talked about a lot during the American Revolution.

This second source of doctrine is called Apostolic Tradition.

http://www.usccb.org/catechism/text/pt1sect1chpt2.htm#80

+ With love in Christ.

Answer 2

Jesus drew a distinction between forgivable and unforgivable sin. Blasphemy was declared an unforgivable sin, but all other sin forgivable. Therefore, not all sin is the same.

You would be well advised not to worry about what others will say -- it will be viewed as challenging their beliefs. Instead, go to the same sources they should be going to -- the Bible and the Catechism. The Catechism will point you to the appropriate scriptures for all things.

However, remember that Sola Scriptura is not itself a sound Biblical principle. It is a matter of historic fact that the Bible has changed significantly over the years. In fact, for the first 200 - 300 years, there was no Bible ... the people used a bunch of independant books as best suited the local community. It wasn't until the mid 400's that a preliminary canon was formalized. Does this mean there were no Christians before then? In the 1550's, well over 1000 years later, Martin Luther made the editorial choice to use the Pentateuch instead of the Septuagint in translating the Bible, causing the deletion of seven books (the Apocrypha).

So, how should the books of the Bible thus be chosen? Or should we consider all such books valid? Or invalid? Ultimately, you have to make a choice on which are valid based on your own perception of the man Jesus. You will evaluate your faith from your view point, which is no more or less valid (I'll avoid the atheist dig here) than their view point.

Answer 3

You quote James, but a million John five:sixteen-17 does let us know that there's a change among sins: "If any person sees his brother sinning, if the sin isn't lethal, he will have to pray to God and he's going to supply him existence. This is just for the ones whose sin isn't lethal. There is the sort of factor as lethal sin, approximately which I don't say that you just will have to pray. All wrongdoing is sin, however there may be sin that's no longer lethal." St. John tells us that there are 2 forms of sins: Deadly (Mortal) and no longer lethal (venial). St. John later states that folks who devote a sin, have to be dropped at the Church and feature the clergymen pray over him. The Church has regularly taught that venial sins, even as a situation, don't hold one from God's grace and from the Eucharist. But mortal sins strips you of God's grace, you're now external of the grace of God and can't simply pray for forgiveness, however ought to move and confess earlier than the priest and acquire penance earlier than you'll be able to acquire the Eucharist once more. There IS weighing of mortal and venial sins. Also, as an alternative of simply reducing out a aspect, you will have to appear on the WHOLE of James two--the regulation he's speakme approximately is not ALL the legislation, however the "royal regulation of scripture 'you shall love your neighbor as your self'" (James two:eight). THAT is the regulation that James is speakme of--no longer sin, no longer mentioning that committing one sin is identical to committing ANY and EVERY sin. He states that partiality makes you responsible of the regulation, which regulation? The royal regulation as acknowledged above in James two:eight. I significantly doubt you feel that any one who is going five miles over the pace prohibit is solely as heinous as any one who rapes or abuses a youngster.

Answer 4

Catholics: Mortal sins and venial sins?

This is just one of the THOUSANDS of INVENTIONS of a CULT!

No proof or anything required if it comes from the "Holy Puddle"= the Vatican.


((as opposed to THE HOLY SEA))