English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Can this be physiologically explained?

2007-01-07 18:02:40 · 42 answers · asked by Naughty Boy 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

42 answers

Even if one accepts the dogma of parthenogenesis, since there are no claims the Jesus Christ was delivered in some divine or unorthodox way, the maidenhead should have been broken in Bethlehem, during the birth. It should have been a difficult delivery, though!

2007-01-13 20:33:24 · answer #1 · answered by Alex 2 · 4 0

Yes, the Virgin Mary did remain a Virgin even after the birth of Christ. No, this cannot be explained physiologically. It is something that we can only know in Faith. Faith is not just a "personal belief" that something is true. It is much more than that. What we know in Faith is more sure of being True (in fact, it IS true, always) than what we discover with our own human reason. Miracles do take place, whether or not people want to believe this. And the virginal birth of Christ is a miracle. So is Mary's perpetual virginity (the fact that she remains a virgin before, during and after giving birth). You do not have to believe this if you choose not to. I am merely telling you the Truth, that is all.

Good luck in your search for Truth.

2007-01-13 15:11:49 · answer #2 · answered by uiogdpm 3 · 0 0

Mathew 1:24,25 says " And Joseph arose from his sleep, and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took her as his wife,
and kept her a virgin UNTIL she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus.
Notice the word UNTIL. That means that after the birth of Jesus she did not remain a virgin. Some how or other the Catholic church likes to ignore this verse (and others).
Can the virgin birth be physiologically explained? No! It's called a MIRACLE! If there is a God then miracles are not only possible but expected. Astronomers say that there are one billion trillion stars in this universe. Not 1 trillion....not 10 trillion.... but 1 billion trillion. Yet the whole universe runs in perfect order with physical laws to govern it. If God could create that, I think he could probably bring about a virgin birth. If you're having problems with the virgin birth you real problem is probably with Genesis 1:1....."In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth".

2007-01-07 18:32:19 · answer #3 · answered by upsman 5 · 1 1

Some say yes some say no. It depends on what you mean. After Jesus, she went on to have other children, so for a while directly after delivery she was still a virgin but not for long. If by virgin you mean when Jesus was born that her hymen membrane was still intact so she was physically considered a virgin, I've heard different things. Some people say that it was still there or "grew back", others say that physically it's impossible. So no one really knows.

2007-01-11 01:20:27 · answer #4 · answered by panda17 2 · 0 0

"While the Bible teaches that Mary was a virgin at Christ's birth, it gives us no reason to believe that she remained a virgin all of her lifetime. In fact, Mary was obedient to God who, when speaking of married people, said that the man shall leave his father and mother and cleave to his wife and that they two should become one flesh (Ephesians 5:31 and Matthew 19:6). Speaking specifically about Mary and Joseph, the Bible explains: He had no relations with her at any time before she bore a son, whom he named Jesus (Matthew 1:25). This passage obviously establishes the fact that Joseph had not had relations with Mary before the birth of Jesus, and other passages clearly declare that she was a virgin at His birth. Stating, He had no relations with her at any time before she bore a son, however, purposely excludes from the time in which they had no relations, the time after she had a son. Neither do any of the other passages which speak of Mary's virginity ever infer that she was to remain a virgin after Christ's birth. Rather, it is implied that after the birth of Christ, Mary and Joseph had normal husband-wife relations. To maintain that Mary remained a virgin all of her life infers that she did not obey God's will for married women, and this does not really honor her."

2007-01-07 18:25:20 · answer #5 · answered by LoveJesus 2 · 0 0

Virginity means not having had sexual intercourse. Although giving birth would certainly rupture a woman's hymen, she would still be a virgin had she been one before (Although I must admit this doesn't happen very often).
As far as the virginity of Mary goes, the Gospel does not state she remained a virgin until death, but simply that she gave birth to Jesus Christ through immaculate conception. (Actually there's much debate over this and it is one of the causes of the split of the original Protestant Church). The Gospel mentions Jesus had brothers and sisters, but Jesus then goes on to say his true brothers and sisters are the followers of his Church. (See Matthew 13:55)

2007-01-07 18:09:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

To clarify the question: After the delivery of Jesus and before what?

It depends.
The key is, Jesus was born by a pure virgin, Mary.

2007-01-07 18:41:13 · answer #7 · answered by sianpu 4 · 0 1

Yes. He was born from her side; miraculously. Ex intacta virgine. Hey, what can I say? Mary is ever-virgin. Many protestants will point to scriptures saying that Jesus had brothers and sisters. But they were cousins. Check the Aramaic. As for the Lord's Birth, it was miraculous and did not affect Our Lady's virginity physiologically. Many will scoff at this answer.

2007-01-07 18:12:33 · answer #8 · answered by Xpi 3 · 1 1

Some say yes, some say no. Depends on which church. As to the birth, the term 'virgin' means only that she did not have intercourse with a man. In this way she was still a virgin immediately after the birth. Some say that she went on later to have sex with her husband and others say that her husband was an old man and he did not have sex with her ever.

2007-01-07 18:09:12 · answer #9 · answered by tonks_op 7 · 0 0

Yes. All things are possible through God. Her spouse was the Holy Spirit. Joseph was step father to Jesus and legally the husband of Mary so that Mary would not be stoned to death for not having a human husband to go with her baby. But I think that Joseph was too righteous to want to mess with the spouse of God especially since she had made a life long vow of virginity.

2007-01-07 18:09:22 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

fedest.com, questions and answers