2007-01-07 13:23:23 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
christian logic: if its not in the bible it doesent exist
2007-01-07 13:24:58 · answer #1 · answered by johnny_zondo 6 · 4⤊ 4⤋
The original authors of the bible did not know that someone was going to take all their writings and edit into a big book that they would entitle the "bible".
-- By the time the New Testament came around, they did have knowledge of the Old Testament. They did not however know that there would be a new testament. You get the idea.
2007-01-07 21:26:37 · answer #2 · answered by A 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Jesus studied the Old Testament and referred to it in his teachings.
Jesus said, "Scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:35). He said "I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished" (Matthew 5:18). He said, "It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the law" (Luke 16:17).
Jesus used Scripture as the final court of appeal in every matter under dispute. He said to some Pharisees, "You nullify the word of God by your tradition that you have handed down" (Mark 7:13). To the Sadducee's He said, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God". (Mat 22:29). To the devil, Jesus consistently responded, "It is written..." (Mat 4:4-10). So following Jesus' lead, the Scriptures alone are our supreme and final authority.
2007-01-07 21:48:27 · answer #3 · answered by Freedom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Read 2 Peter 19-21.
2007-01-07 21:27:39 · answer #4 · answered by Tabitha 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Bible is an Anthology, a group of books; it wasn't written as one book. It was complied over more than 1000 years, Old and New Testaments. No humans knew when writing the books that they would one day be part of a larger compilation of books.
2007-01-07 21:29:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is.... 2 Peter 1:20-21 KNowing this forst, that no prophesy of scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
2007-01-07 21:26:37 · answer #6 · answered by littledreamergirl 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because the Bible wasn't actually written until many years later after the stories in it took place...
2007-01-07 21:25:05 · answer #7 · answered by Ashley R 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The church had to gather all the books and whatnot. This meant the "Bible" as we know it was not put together until many many years after it was completed, after countless meetings about what goes in and what is heretical.
2007-01-07 21:27:50 · answer #8 · answered by Wisdom Lies in the Heart 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it is. anytime the bible mentions "the teaching" (ie Moses saying "you shall obey this teaching forever") its talking about the bible. the hebrew word is "torah". in many translations it will just keep the word Torah instead of translating it to "teaching".
2007-01-07 21:39:06 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because the real name of the Old Testment is Torah and the real name of the New Testment is Injil
2007-01-07 21:37:16 · answer #10 · answered by Muse 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The word comes from the Greek, biblos, meaning "book."
2007-01-07 21:25:34 · answer #11 · answered by Jo 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋