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I am a great student of Philosophy. Recently I have been reading in texts that mention the words "apriori and aposteriori". Is it truth that we have before and after experience. Please enlighten. Thanks!!!

2007-01-07 09:09:23 · 2 answers · asked by Fred 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

2 answers

Knowledge can also be divided into apriori and aposteriori knowledge. Aposteriori knowledge is knowledge that is based on the specific contents of actual sense experience. Apriori knowledge is all other knowledge. Following Hume, Kant takes all aposteriori knowledge as unmysterious and self-explanatory. This leaves synthetic apriori knowledge as potentially problematic. Hume simply denied that we have any synthetic apriori knowledge at all. Kant believed that we clearly do: our knowledge of logic, arithmetic and the principle of causality are all synthetic and apriori.

2007-01-07 09:11:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

"A priori" knowledge requires no evidence. "A posteriori" knowledge is dependent on evidence.

In Latin, "a priori" means "from before," and "a posteriori" means "from after."

A priori knowledge usually is based on unquestionable assumptions. A posteriori knowledge is based on evidence, frequently gathered based on a priori knowledge.

Examples:
A priori: When something is flying, it is not in contact with the ground.
A posteriori: Birds that flap their wings can often lose contact with the ground and begin to fly.

2007-01-07 09:13:04 · answer #2 · answered by NHBaritone 7 · 0 0

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