If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man, and her second husband dislikes her and writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, or if he dies, then her first husband, who divorced her, is not allowed to marry her again after she has been defiled (Deut. 24:1-4).
2007-01-07 05:44:42 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
What century are you living in? Try telling a judge that load of sh*t.
2007-01-07 05:47:31 · answer #1 · answered by INDRAG? 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
“IS IT lawful for a man to divorce his wife on every sort of ground?” asked the Pharisees who were trying to trap the Great Teacher, Jesus Christ. He answered them by referring to the first human marriage and set out a standard on the matter: “What God has yoked together let no man put apart.”
The Pharisees contended that Moses made provisions for divorce by prescribing the issuing of “a certificate of dismissal.” Jesus answered them: “Moses, out of regard for your hardheartedness, made the concession to you of divorcing your wives, but such has not been the case from the beginning. I say to you that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery.”—Matthew 19:3-9.
2007-01-07 05:50:34 · answer #2 · answered by Gizelle K 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This law in Deuteronomy is akin to modern time companies who will not rehire former employees who have left to go work for a competitor.
2007-01-07 06:19:41 · answer #3 · answered by bikerchickjill 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus said in Matthew, that Moses was allowed by Father God to do that because of the hardness of their hearts but that any man who divorces his wife except for the cause of adultry has committed adultry himself.
2007-01-07 05:50:57 · answer #4 · answered by martha d 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Read Mathew chapter 19.
2007-01-07 05:54:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus said that is wrong that was laws made by men for men . does islam need areasom men can devorce and remarry freely trhat is not the case with christians you are quoting from the old testiment and way back.
2007-01-07 05:49:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because the bible is prejudiced against women, gays, any other religion, and pretty much anything that isn't Christian or doesn't live by the Christian idea of sin.
2007-01-07 05:49:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋