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Can anyone briefly explain the fundamental differences? Are they basically evident in vocabulary, spelling, pronunciation, grammar, or all of these? How easy is the mutual communication? Do books published in Spain, for example, need editing before being published in one of the Latin American countries?

Would you draw a parallel to American and British English, or is it quite different?

And one more (you don't have to answer this if it's too much trouble) How does the Spanish spoken in the various countries of Latin America relate to the Spanish spoken in Spain? (For example, Australian English is much closer to British English in vocabulary and pronunciation than is American English. Any such similarities in Spanish? Could you say that, say, the Spanish in Mexico or Argentina or elsewhere is closer to the Spanish in Spain than some other dialects of Spanish?)

2007-01-07 02:00:14 · 6 answers · asked by Alexander T 2 in Society & Culture Languages

6 answers

That legend is so stupid, i dont know how it got so famous...how people from coast for example would be able to hear that king's issue and copy it?

About language is almost the same, but each country has its slangs and spelling. The main diference between spanish from spain and latin america is the "z"

in latin america s and z sound equal, and c as well except when a word begins with it

corazón (heart) in america would be said corason and in spain corathon (th of thanks)

2007-01-07 02:29:56 · answer #1 · answered by migue 3 · 2 1

All of these, parallel to British and American English. Among Cari bean, South and Central Americans I found differences in dialect and usage the same as we have here between the north and the south.

Spanish from Spain is the same but the pronunciation has a much different sound, for example the number five in Mexico might be said "seenko" while the Spanish might say "sheenko" it has a bit more shushing sound in many words. The spelling Cinco is the same.

When listening, it just takes a moment to adjust, the same as listening to someone with a thick British accent. Usage of words and phrases would be similar to British and American English.

While there are recognisable differences in the spoken word, you can spot a Cuban or similar Caribean accent a mile a way I would be hard pressed to say if any Spanish on THIS side of the pond is closer to Spain than another. For me, the question would be similar to: Of Tennesee, Kentucy, West Virgina or Georgia which accent sounds closer to Boston, Mass?

If you speak to someone from Spain they know immediately if you learned it in Mexico, specifically in the north they tend to have a sing song sound a rhythm if you will while speaking.

Hope this helps.

2007-01-07 02:59:41 · answer #2 · answered by Tim H 3 · 0 0

As already everybody said the Spanish in Spain and the Spanish in South America is the same.

The only difference once again is the pronunciation/accent and some slangs in the different countries.

As the difference is limited to the pronunciation and NOT to the written Spanish, it would never be necessary to change or adjust or edit any books written either in Spain or in any of the South American countries.

2007-01-07 09:29:45 · answer #3 · answered by Martha P 7 · 0 0

I'm latin american from Uruguay, and can tell you that the grammar is the same for both, Spain and Latin america. The main difference is in the pronounciation of some words and in the accent. I agree with the person that talked about Z and S..even..i have to add...B and V. For us............the sound is the same. Apart of that, of course each country has the own slang.....even Spain, but that is something common at all the languages.
It is not necessary to edit the books b4 publish them in any country of Latin America. We pronounce different, that is not the same that to be ignorants. We respect more the language than english speakers. For example in USA so much words are different spelled..........as for example night...i have seen it as nite..
Same about the verbs and their auxiliaries. I have been taught that verbs to have...to be......didnt need auxiliary verbs, but i'm seeing last times.........I did go.....instead of I went..........or I did have...instead of i had..
In spanish, that doesnt happen. Grammar is only one.......for the almost 400 millions of spanish speakers.

2007-01-07 04:25:05 · answer #4 · answered by حلاَمبرا hallambra 6 · 2 0

It is very similar to English, think of Latin America as the USA, there are many regionla variations between States in terms of accent and slang, the same goes for Latin America.

Spanish in Spain is spoken with what we would call a slight lisp, legend has it this is the result of the lisp of a very high ranked member of the Spanish court some centuries back.

2007-01-07 02:18:33 · answer #5 · answered by fourmorebeers 6 · 0 1

Spain = 60 million Spanish speakers.
Latin America = 300+ million Spanish speakers.
Think. Do you prefer to learn "Spanish" Spanish with an accent that is disliked by many of the 300+ million Spanish speakers?

2007-01-07 03:21:57 · answer #6 · answered by Hi y´all ! 6 · 1 2

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