That is true, but it was also to fullfill prophecy, Joel chapter 2 specifically, and as any miracle to prove to those who witnes it that what is being done is of God.
Those who do not know what tongues mean and practice them today, like the feeling it gives them and the false holiness they feel. They beleive their experience and emotions rather than scripture.
Those who are not beleivers in the bible don't know because they could care less what the bible says.
Okay so as not to decieve anyone I am now a pagan, so therefore an unbeleiver, but I did spend many years as a Christian and preacher and studied the bible so i still know what the bible says even if I no longer beleive it.
Does my unbeleif change what it says if it is indeed right?
2007-01-07 01:33:33
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Continue reading and dissecting your Greek. There are different words translated "tongues". Most do remark to a known language. But several scriptures refer to a prayer language. What this is I'm not sure. I'm still figuring out. But I did have an experience several years ago. I was in a healing service when I found myself speaking in tongues. I asked God if this was from Him and if it wasn't then to take it away. A peace came over me like I have never known before. This has happened several times since of its own accord and only after the presence of God has been prayed down by the congregation.
2007-01-07 01:36:16
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answer #2
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answered by djm749 6
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Tongues are initially given as a sign that one is under the complete control of the Spirit. But there are many tongues with different purposes. Tongues can also edify one during prayer, other tongues can edify the church (the people) when used in conjunction with interpretation (typically in prophesy). Tongues can be any language that is unknown to the individual such as Spanish or French as you mentioned. But more often it is a heavenly language that has no earthly origin.
Those who understand what tongues are cherish them and strive to receive them. Those who do not mock and ridicule them. That began on the very first day tongues were given as recorded in the second chapter of Acts. Some of those looking on accused those who received them of being drunk.
And so it goes...
2007-01-07 01:36:09
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answer #3
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answered by AK 6
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Another purpose for tongues is self-edification, tangible evidence for the indwelling of the Holy Spirit in Christians. Also, occasionally, in a meeting of believers only, someone will speak in tongues aloud, but there will always be someone there to provide an interpretation and this interpretation will align with orthodox teachings of the Bible.
Not all Christians speak in tongues, but the Word doesn't preclude it.
2007-01-07 01:31:43
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answer #4
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answered by stronzo5785 4
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Tongues is not to wittness to the lost unless there is an interpretation of the tongues, Read 1st Cor. 12:1-14 & also Apostle Paul says if one speaks in tongue & there be unbelievers there, won't they say they are mad, But if one speaks in tongues & another Interpretated the tongues then that unbeliever would say, God is surely with them. You can also read 1st Cor. Chapter 13 & 14 But let me take you to 1st Cor. 14:22 & 23 That explains the part about they will say you are mad or crazy.
2007-01-07 01:39:23
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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there also were several places in Acts where all the believers spoke in tongues such as Acts 2 in order to show God moving in a new way or realm.
in these cases when God first poured out His Spirit in Judah, Judea, Samaria, the first gentiles, and later in the book with the followers of John the Baptists (who said I baptize you with water but one is coming who will baptize you with the Holy Spirit) all the believers had some demonstration of the Holy spirit... not some few particular ones..
2007-01-07 01:27:25
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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The gift of tongues is open to interpretation. I believe it is legit, but I feel it is the ability to articulate truth in different 'languages', such as Christianity, psychology, Buddhism, philosophy, etc.
2007-01-07 01:31:54
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answer #7
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answered by ? 6
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That definition varies according to which sect of Christianity you're speaking from. If you believe it means languages, yay. There are scores of babbling fools who believe it means the nonsense gibberish of their god. As the Bible is largely a collection of old myths, their beliefs are no more or less valid than yours.
2007-01-07 01:26:49
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answer #8
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answered by Zombie 7
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I do not think you are the final word on it tongues may be in a langueage others no but more often is in a language of God that possble one person can translate.
2007-01-07 01:23:43
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I Cor.13:1
If I speak in the tongues of men* and of angels*, but have not love,...
Why don't you know what tongues mean?
Tongues of men = languages (dead/ alive human tongues)
Tongues of angels (or angelics) > you have nothing to compare
them (except human languages).
2007-01-07 01:32:08
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answer #10
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answered by b1931073 2
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