1st point - I was taught that the immaculate conception was when Mary's mother conceived her - Jesus had to be born from a woman without sin, so Mary had to be born sin free - hense, Immaculate Conception.
2nd point - the Bible is not meant to be taken literally. Do you really believe that Moses lived to be over 900 years old just because he built a really big boat??
2007-01-06 10:51:46
·
answer #1
·
answered by quatrapiller 6
·
0⤊
5⤋
The Immaculate Conception is a Roman Catholic dogma that asserts that Mary, the mother of Jesus, was preserved by God from the stain of original sin at the time of her own conception.
You're speaking of the Virgin Birth, not the Immaculate Conception. And who said Mary gave birth only a couple weeks after she conceived? Have you ever read the Bible before?
2007-01-06 10:51:06
·
answer #2
·
answered by srprimeaux 5
·
3⤊
1⤋
First of all, srprimeaux, is right. The Immaculate Conception refers to the conception of Jesus' mother. The belief is that she was conceived without original sin referring to the sin of Adam and Eve that, supposedly, the rest of us are cursed to be born with.
As to the birth of Jesus. People did notice something weird as she was nearly stoned. This first time I have heard any notion that her pregnancy was only a couple of weeks.
2007-01-06 10:57:44
·
answer #3
·
answered by Mr. Bodhisattva 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
Like many people, you have a misperception of this. You should see two movies: THE SONG OF BERNADETTE and NATIVITY. The phrase Immaculate Conception refers to Mary being without the stain of original sin that everyone else has. Mary conceived Jesus in a supernatural way. Mary's pregnancy was like most. It is only the way Christ was conceived and born that were supernatural.
2007-01-06 10:57:54
·
answer #4
·
answered by Search4truth 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
It was a cold, windy day in December of 1972. The Steelers were hosting their arch rival Raiders in an AFC Divisional Playoff game. It With 22 seconds left in the game, Pittsburgh was trailing 7-6 with no time outs. It was fourth-and-ten from the Pittsburgh 40. Steelers head coach Chuck Noll called for the 66 Circle Option, a pass play intended for receiver Barry Pearson (a rookie who was playing in his first NFL game). Steelers quarterback Terry Bradshaw, unable to find Pearson while avoiding two Raiders defenders, threw the football to the Raiders' 35-yard line, toward fullback John "Frenchy" Fuqua. Raiders safety Jack Tatum reached Fuqua just as the ball did. Tatum's hit knocked Fuqua to the ground. The ball sailed backward several yards, end over end. Steelers running back Franco Harris, after initially blocking on the play, had moved forward in case Bradshaw needed another eligible receiver. He scooped up the sailing ball just before it hit the ground, apparently off the tops of his shoes, and ran the rest of the way downfield to score the touchdown that gave the Steelers a 12-7 lead with five seconds remaining in the game.
2007-01-06 10:55:27
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
If I remember Dec 8 is the day celebrated for immaculate conception then Mary gave birth Dec 25, so yes 2 weeks.
Well, Dec 25 is the pagan traditin celebrated for the sun god not really Jesus' birthday.
Think: If Jesus started his ministry at age 30 and continued for 3 1/2 years, then died on Nisan 14 (Jewish Passover) which is around the end of March (Jews please correct this if wrong). Then Jesus would have been 34 yrs old on end Sept/early October...counting back Dec 8 will make Jesus an overdue baby.......
But with all explanations that it was Mary's bday....and they say mary is not stained with original sin,where in the bible is it?
2007-01-06 10:58:06
·
answer #6
·
answered by Tomoyo K 4
·
0⤊
1⤋
Mary would have had a standard pregnancy like anyone else; not sure where you're getting your timeline.
Read: Luke 1:26-50 then Matthew 1:18-25, then Luke 2:1-7.
Remember, folks traveled by animal and it took a great deal of time because the animals would have to stop and rest; as well as the people.
2007-01-06 10:55:39
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Jesus was born of a virgin, conceived of the Holy Spirit. I'm sure she was pregnant longer than 2 weeks.
The idea that Mary was of an Immaculate Conception is adding to the Word of God and the OT Prophets.
2007-01-06 10:52:13
·
answer #8
·
answered by LottaLou 7
·
2⤊
0⤋
The "Immaculate Conception" is the Catholic idea that Mary was conceived without sin, immaculate, to be the perfect vessel for the Christ.
The virgin birth, which is Mary's delivery of Yeshua, was a normal-term pregnancy, I presume. I have never read anything in any of the gospels that would lead me to believe otherwise.
2007-01-06 10:52:00
·
answer #9
·
answered by N 6
·
1⤊
1⤋
The Immaculate Conception is when MARRY was concieved
-this was not a cirgin birth, her parents did it the old fashioned way
-its is called The Immaculate Conception because from the momment for her conception, she was made with out sin.
Later on in Marys life, she was visited by the angel Gabreil.
he said "Hail, full of grace (to whom is given grace, favoured one), the Lord is with thee." Mary having heard the greeting words did not speak; she was troubled in spirit, since she knew not the angel, nor the cause of his coming, nor the meaning of the salutation. And the angel continued and said: "Fear not, Mary, for thou hast found grace with God. Behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and shalt bring forth a son; and thou shalt call his name Jesus. He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Most High, and he Kindgom shall have no end.
-Mary asked how this could be, scince she had no relations with a man
-The angel said:The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee. And therefore also the Holy which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God
-so Mary Was a virgin, the Holy Spirit came upon her, and by the glory of God she conceived and boor a son
-it took 9 months just as any other woman
-9 months later, Jesus was born of the most pure virgin mary
2007-01-06 10:50:33
·
answer #10
·
answered by Susanna 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Why does it might desire to be Biblical to be believed? that is barely those Johnny-come-recently Bible preachers somewhat than actual theologians that have problems with no remember if this or it fairly is interior the Bible or not. Jesus did not go away us the Bible. He left us His coaching workplace, the Catholic Church. The Catholic Church predates the Bible by technique of four hundred years. that's the Catholic Church that gave delivery to the Bible, the Bible did not provide delivery to the Catholic Church. Or did you think of that the Bible fell out the sky one large day already revealed, certain and translated into English into the palms of non-Catholic Christians everywhere? right this is nutrition for theory which you will not reconcile with Biblical information: Nowhere does the Bible declare to be authority. in certainty the Prologue to the Gospel of St. John tells us that Jesus Christ is the understanding of God, not the Bible. The Bible does not make this declare for itself. So why does every person say that the Bible is the understanding of God??? Why? because of the fact the Catholic Church declared that the Bible, all seventy 3 Books with not something further or detracted, became the Written word of God. think of on that for a mutually as and in line with risk then you fairly'll decide why Catholics don't have a burning might desire to reconcile what the Church teaches with Biblical information. H
2016-12-15 17:29:21
·
answer #11
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋