he could impregnate Mary? Does this imply that God has low regard for men?
2007-01-05 07:41:16 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There's unfortunately a pat answer for this one - they weren't married, just engaged. And a good, pious man doesn't have sex before he's married.
)O(
2007-01-05 07:45:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I agree with many of the answers above, but would also add that the event of a virgin birth would show the miracle of the event. Mary was a vessel (willingly) that God used to bring forth a perfect being. It had nothing to do with sex. It preserved that God was His Father, and not Joseph.
Besides, if you ever looked into the incredible character of Joseph, you would find that he was more interested in the will of God than his own importance.
2007-01-05 15:50:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, it's b/c if Joseph physically impregnates Mary then Christ is born of a man (who has original sin). He needs to be born of the Spirit to save us. Remember that the "blind can't lead the blind"
2007-01-05 15:43:48 · answer #3 · answered by whackiejackies 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No. The Bible states that from Josephs line there was a curse. The Bible also says the seed of the woman. Normally, seed is reserved for men.
2007-01-05 15:43:44 · answer #4 · answered by RB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In order to have a sinless child she couldn't be touched by man,because man had sin in him.Had she concieved from Joseph then Jesus would have been born in sin just like everyone else.The sacrifice on the cross had to be perfect.Meaning,Jesus was the shameless,spotless,sinless,perfect lamb of God.He was the perfect sacrifice.
2007-01-05 16:27:40 · answer #5 · answered by Derek B 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because the child WAS GOD!
Jospeh did impregnate Mary after Jesus was born.
2007-01-05 15:44:34 · answer #6 · answered by halloweenbride97 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I agree with the person who says that conceiving by Joseph would transfer original sin, it had to be through Spirit to be sin free.
2007-01-05 15:45:59 · answer #7 · answered by Gardener for God(dmd) 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no, afterall he did create man first.
2007-01-05 15:42:58 · answer #8 · answered by kristonianinstitution 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
he was eating popcorn
2007-01-05 15:42:52 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋