Mary was also in the line of David
2007-01-05 06:44:00
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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When you look up the Greek word "Seed" the word is "Sperma". That's pretty much self explanatory. What it means is that Jesus came through the "Bloodline" of David via his father Joseph. The reason there is so much confusion is that you have Jews today that claim the bloodline or lineage goes through the mother. This has never been true. Numbers the 1st chapter explains this. This is also why Abraham, Isaac and Jacob are the fathers of Israel. The Bible never mentions Sarah, Rebecca and Rachel as the mothers of Israel. This is the reason the Bible never speaks of Dinah (Jacob's daughter) heading one of the 12 tribes. Lineage goes through the man. To say the Most High went into Mary would be sacrilege. Going into a man's wife would be sin. The Most High can not sin. Jesus came from his physical father Joseph. His Spirit which is in his physical body comes from his Father The Most High.
2015-03-05 10:28:16
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answer #2
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answered by Killa 1
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Romans 1:3
It's an affirmation of the humanity of Jesus, as both his mother and his foster-father were of the family of David.
Jesus got his humanity from His mother, that's why in God's Word all generations shall call her "Blessed".
The "seed of David" is in reference to the geneology of David, or family line. David had been dead for centuries.
For Mary to have sex with anyone other than the Father of her Son, Jewish law would demand that she be stoned to death. The claim that Mary was not a virgin is absurd.
She cannot be "full of grace" and disregard the law at the same time.
2007-01-05 06:55:12
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answer #3
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answered by Illuminator 7
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Romans 1:3 = Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
"seed of David" is very specific. Hard to misinterpret that. It isn't figureative in the slightest by nature. Seed = Sperm
That's what they called it.
In order for Jesus to be the son of god, Joseph's sperm can have nothing to do with it.
-- Okay, we have to remember Constantine and the council he put together to edit a universal version of the new testament. They had to decide whether he was a profit or a god. They used many different text and simply over looked that one and forgot to take it out.
2007-01-05 06:49:10
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answer #4
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answered by A 6
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Good question.
I would assume that Mary is supposed to be a direct descendant from David, and it is through 'the seed of David' inherited from Mary's ancestors that Jesus gets this royal lineage.
Although, since most of the genealogies of the period trace descent only through patrilineal lines, I'm not sure if that would really count as the 'see of David'.
Interesting quandary.
2007-01-05 06:44:56
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Mary, and her husband, Joseph were both from the seed of David. The two geneologies, Matthew and Luke are different. The Lineage in Matthew is Joseph's, not the blood lineage of Jesus. It is the Jewish lineage for taxation reasons. The lineage in Luke is Jesus' real blood lineage.
The lineages are different. The list splits at David's sons, King Solomon (Joseph's lineage) and Nathan (Jesus' lineage)
2007-01-05 06:59:38
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answer #6
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answered by 4HIM- Christians love 7
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2014-10-14 11:49:57
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Mary was a descendent of Kind David. The human portion of the body of Christ had genetic material from David.
2007-01-05 06:46:13
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Because Mary was from David's family line as well. To help you understand, you have to remember Sarah, Abraham and Hagar.
Abraham was promised a son through Sarah, a son from whose loins would come the Messiah.
Sarah was old in age and did not believe that God would open her womb.
Sarah told Abraham to have a child with her slave, Hagar.
Abraham did, and Ishmael was born to Hagar.
Sarah also conceived, Isaac.
Now here we have a huge debate as to who is the chosen child of Abraham. The Jews say it is Isaac, the muslims say it is Ishmael.
Well, in Judaism, in order to be considered jewish, one's MOTHER had to be jewish, irregardless of whether or not the father is jewish. Example: A person's father is jewish, but mother is not...child considered NOT JEWISH.
A person's mother is jewish, but father is not....person is considered to be jewish.
Back to Mary. In order for Jesus to be Jewish, his mother had to be...that's is obvious.
But in order to be the Messiah, he had to be from the line of David, and that would come through the mother, Mary.
Interestingly, Joseph, Mary's husband, was in the line of King David and therefore held a legal right to the throne. However, because he descended from Jechonias (Matt. 1:11-12) (also called Jeconiah and Jehoiachin), he would have been disqualified by God from taking the throne. However, Mary's son would not.
2007-01-05 06:55:06
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answer #9
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answered by Jose 3
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She came through the line of David by his son Nathan.Joseph came through the line of David a different way ,via ,Solomon.That line,a couple hundred years after Solomon was cursed by God and not able to become a King anymore.See Jeremiah....I forget what chapter but it's King Jeconiah (aka Coniah) that gets the curse.
Nathan was Solomon's brother.
2007-01-05 06:45:37
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answer #10
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answered by AngelsFan 6
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