As far as i know using that adjective makes God a product of some other thing.
2007-01-04 16:44:05 · 12 answers · asked by Sadegh B 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
no He doesnt He is without sin.
2007-01-04 16:45:26 · answer #1 · answered by shiningon 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
G-d is outside of this temporal universe. He is Holy, meaning that He is set apart. The illustration of set apart, actually, is the Jewish observation of Shabbat. From the time that candles are lit, which is considered as work, the subsequent period of time until candles are lit again at the end of Shabbat is considered the time to be with G-d and is a time of peace. He has created this universe and has ordained laws by which man should live. He told Adam and Eve to not eat of the fruit of the garden, in so doing, they rebelled and that is what sin is. Believing that you can do just whatever you want to contrary to the laws of G-d and in essence considering that you are G-d. This is why Lucifer (Satan) was cast out of heaven. This was the ultimate rebellion and in the end Satan is doomed.
2007-01-07 11:20:46 · answer #2 · answered by Peace W 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Using the word sinless to decribe God makes Him a product of Himself. He exists solely because He is. I don't think He sins, of course I do believe He created sin. Oh well, guess I'll find out when I die!
2007-01-04 16:47:20 · answer #3 · answered by DjSlinky77 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't think it is possible for him to create sin. If you look at his creations sinning and posting blame, than yes. The reasoning being God is all knowing and will know what will be possible. So you could bring blame to god is creation in the first place. However the story fo Adam and Eve kind of show otherwise.
I think for us to exist the realm God is in there is no way for God to sin. My understanding of God based on partial experience and theory would say he is in us as we are in him, which brings on further ponder in regards to your question.
2007-01-04 16:54:29 · answer #4 · answered by Labatt113 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
From "Socrates Meets Jesus":
Socrates:
It would seem that you have many gods just as we do in Athens, only you don't call them gods.
Jesus:
No! God is all powerful.
Socrates:
Then the only difference is the degree of power?
Jesus:
No. God is better and more virtuous than they. Sin is impossible for him.
Socrates:
What is sin?
Jesus:
It is an act of disobedience to God.
Socrates:
I see from this that God could not sin, because he could not be disobedient to himself. But since sin is impossible for him, it is no more a mark of achievement for him to be free of sin than it is a mark of achievement for a rock to be unable to move. It's merely a matter of definition.
2007-01-04 16:48:21 · answer #5 · answered by eldad9 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i'm guessing you're asking about the Bible god. well, just read the Bible.
the Bible god apparently can break his own rules when it pleases him to do so,
He ...
kills on a grand scale
lies (sends stronge delusions so men will believe a lie.)
steals (I come as a thief in the night)
commits adultery (impregnated Mary, an young woman already engaged to be married).
i guess he's a "do as I say not as I do" kind of god.
2007-01-04 16:53:21 · answer #6 · answered by nebtet 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God is sinless because his followers decide what is sin and what isn't. Notice this seems to change everytime its convenient...
2007-01-04 16:47:40 · answer #7 · answered by alphazer0 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I Don't know about your God All I know is that my God my creator is Perfect w/o sin. and by the blood of Jesus your sins are forgiven but only if you accept him
2007-01-04 17:21:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
God is above all sin
2007-01-04 16:45:53 · answer #9 · answered by spanky 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
God did not beget nor is he begotten. He is our creator therefore he cannot sin against his own creation. What God does is intended.
2007-01-04 16:47:13 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no sinless means that he does not sin and no that is not correct he is not a product of some other thing.
hope i answer your question.
2007-01-04 16:45:57 · answer #11 · answered by knowssignlanguage 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋