2007-01-04 12:41:02 · 25 answers · asked by djfjedi1976 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Michael . Why mention Araianism if not just to show off knowledge? so Arianism did not prevail , does that mean the council was wrong ? or that the council was wrong about the bible canon ?
2007-01-04 12:56:05 · update #1
Selar. easy now girl. remeber god existed before Jesus. therefore Jesus is rightly called his only begotten son. because Jesus existed first of all creation.
2007-01-04 12:57:39 · update #2
YES!
John 1:1 "Inthe beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God"
John 1:14 "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth"
2007-01-04 12:43:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
According to the Nicaean Creed, written in 325 C.E., Jesus existed before he was conceived as a human.
Prior to this, a popular theology named Arianism (after the priest Arius) held that Jesus did not exist until the Holy Spirit conceived him in Mary.
This was a major controversy, and after the Creed was pronounced it was blasphemous to believe in Arianism. It's adherents were shunned from society.
Notice that not one Christian has mentioned this turning point in the history of their religion. I wonder if they've even heard of the First Council of Nicaea, where the Holy Books of their Bible were decided upon?
2007-01-04 12:44:54 · answer #2 · answered by Michael 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes the only part of Jesus that was created at the conception of Mary was the human side of Christ.
The bible tells us that the Word was God and was with God in the beginning.
2007-01-04 12:47:19 · answer #3 · answered by L Strunk 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Again...if you don't believe the Bible, then it doesn't matter. But the Bible says "In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made, without him nothing was made that has been made" (John 1:1-2)
That means he existed before Mary did. He made her.
She delivered him in physical birth, but he delivered he in spiritual birth.
2007-01-04 12:48:05 · answer #4 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, the bible says a million times that Christ is and always was. The Alpha and the Omega the beginning and the end. In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God.
2007-01-04 12:45:28 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, John Chapter 1:1-3 and same answer as before Before Abraham was "I AM" John 8:58
2007-01-04 12:44:52 · answer #6 · answered by I-o-d-tiger 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes Jesus has always existed before even the world was created. He came to Earth because He loves us. He still does despite our sins.
2007-01-04 12:45:52 · answer #7 · answered by Birdman 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes before mary conceive jesus was exist and it will be without existance how he can take birth lol and if u ask not exist it can also be possible today if a big spritual and tantrik like to smash his existance from the universe its only a method now u tell what u like to say in this connectin u like to exist of jesus or not thanks now i ask question from uuuuuuuuuuuuuuu
2007-01-04 18:53:05 · answer #8 · answered by name of spritual tantra horr0r 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, Jesus was the Word made flesh. If you notice also, Genesis 1:26
26 Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, in our likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, [b] and over all the creatures that move along the ground."
Note the US, plural form.
2007-01-04 12:45:48 · answer #9 · answered by Gardener for God(dmd) 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Isn't Jesus God in the flesh? I think then he did exsist before mary because God has always exsisted.
2007-01-04 12:53:11 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋