Specifics would be nice
2007-01-02 16:36:38 · 13 answers · asked by PLEHESAELP 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
1 Cor 13:8-10
But where there are prophecies, they will cease ; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away.
9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part,
10 but when perfection comes, the imperfect disappears.
NIV
I think many don't realize that scripture we have today was a work that took many years to complete. Scripture is a compilation of various letters written by inspired men over many years following the ascension of Jesus.
If you will look at every example of miracles in the New Testament you will find that they were done to help men but primarily their purpose was to confirm that those writing scripture were truly inspired men of God. So noone would doubt that the scriptures being written were indeed from God.
We know that the word of God is perfect and complete. I think that is what this verse is referring to. Before we had "that which is perfect" it was necessary to have miracles. Once the word of God was given and written in all it's perfection it was no longer necessary to have that which was imperfect "the imperfect dissapears"
Now that we have scripture, prophesy has ceased. Speaking in tongues has been done away with. Knowledge separate and apart from scripture is no longer given.
So I believe this is the evidence we have that God intended all miracles to cease upon the death of the apostles and those on whom they had laid their hands to impart the gift of miracles.
2007-01-02 17:05:00 · answer #1 · answered by yagman 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Scriptures show that the miraculous gifts given to first-century Christians were only temporary in nature. “Love never fails. But whether there are gifts of prophesying, they will be done away with; whether there are tongues, they will cease.” (1 Cor. 13:8) Does the Bible give any indication as to when the gifts would cease? Yes, it does.
Read for yourself the reported cases when the gift of tongues accompanied the outpouring of holy spirit: Acts 2:1-4, 14; 10:44-48; 19:6. You will notice that in every case one or more of the apostles of Jesus Christ were present. According to Acts 8:18, “through the laying on of the hands of the apostles the spirit was given.” Logically, then, with the death of the apostles, the transmitting of the gifts of the spirit, including the gift of tongues, ceased. The gift of tongues had served its purpose. It had been well established that the Christian congregation had God’s favor and backing. Moreover, Christians had grown in number and had been dispersed to many lands, carrying the “good news” with them. Therefore, the need to speak in tongues was no longer necessary and not scripturally based for our time.
2007-01-02 17:24:26 · answer #2 · answered by Liz R 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
What united states of america are you from? that's complicated to comprehend what you assert, yet will attempt to respond to the perfect i can. My church believes in talking in tongues also. it really is assembly of God, one of those Pentecostal church. you recognize what the Bible says, that if there's a note in tongues that someone ought to interpret and there should not be more desirable than 3 words from the Lord in tongues. yet, each and every now and then the full church will pray mutually in tongues that's what they did interior the better room on the day of Pentecost. maximum Pentecostal church homes don't have a habit of doing this and a large reason is that it would offend those who're not used to tongues in any respect, like newcomers. we do not opt for to lose any contributors both. i am hoping this solutions your question and God bless you.
2016-10-16 23:11:17 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no there is no such thing as the Bible speaking out against speaking in tongues....when someone speaks in tongues, it is the persons "Soul" speaking directly to God... it is also sometimes, God speaking through that person...or prophesying, and there is someone there to translate what the good lord is saying. I have personally been in church while that has happened and let me tell you it is a humbling experience. It is not some kind of foreign language like Spanish or french...its a gift for those who are living right and who are filled with the Holy Ghost.. I'm pentecostal, by the way.
2007-01-02 16:54:12 · answer #4 · answered by tweetybird37406 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
when the Bible talks about speaking in tongues, it says you must have an interpreter. Speaking in tongues wasn't some "holy language" that nobody could understand. Rather, it was people preaching in another language to a person that spoke that language, even though they themselves did not speak it. They had to have an interpreter to make sure they weren't preaching something, say Satanical.
Most pentecostals speak in some "heavenly language" that no one can understand, and they don't use an interpreter. So in a way, yes, there is some Biblical evidence. It is in Acts, although I am not sure where because it is dark, my hubby is asleep, and I can't look it up.
2007-01-02 16:41:39 · answer #5 · answered by mountain_laurel1183 5 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Among those ‘speaking in tongues’ today are Pentecostals and Baptists, also Roman Catholics, Episcopalians, Methodists, Lutherans, and Presbyterians. Jesus said that the holy spirit would ‘guide his disciples into all the truth.’ (John 16:13) Do the members of each of these religions believe that the others who also “speak in tongues” have been guided into “all the truth”? How could that be, since they are not all in agreement? What spirit is making it possible for them to “speak in tongues”?
A joint statement by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council admitted: “We are also aware that a similar phenomenon can occur under occult/demonic influence.” (Gospel and Spirit, April 1977, published by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council, p. 12) The book Religious Movements in Contemporary America (edited by Irving I. Zaretsky and Mark P. Leone, quoting L. P. Gerlach) reports that in Haiti ‘speaking in tongues’ is characteristic of both Pentecostal and Voodoo religions.—(Princeton, N.J.; 1974), p. 693; see also 2 Thessalonians 2:9, 10.
2007-01-02 16:52:04 · answer #6 · answered by Just So 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
No. The early Christian church spoke in tongues. There's an in house debate within Christianity where some people believe that tongues have ceased (cessationists) and some who believe that the gifts of the Holy Spirit (including tongues) continues today.
I believe the latter, personally.
2007-01-02 16:41:52 · answer #7 · answered by srprimeaux 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not. The apostles and the first believers spoke in tongues on the day of Pentecost.
2007-01-02 16:41:38 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
I believe the specification is that you speak in a true language that can be identified and understood, one that you did not have previous knowledge of. Merely babbling and making unintelligible sounds is not considered speaking in tongues.
2007-01-02 17:57:28 · answer #9 · answered by February Rain 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The bible does account for speaking in ancient tongues unknown to you. I don't know if gibberish counts.
2007-01-02 16:42:35 · answer #10 · answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋