After John Wycliffe translated the Bible into English the next person to do it was William Tyndale. He was only able to finish the New Testament and the first five books of the Old testament by 1530. By order of the priesthood Tyndale was burned at the stake for translating the Scriptures on Oct, 6, 1536.
Why didn't the priesthood want the the English speaking world to be able to read the Bible?
2007-01-02 15:32:09 · 9 answers · asked by tas211 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
In 1535, Myles coverdale completed the first printedbible (all others were hand copied.)
2007-01-02 15:39:14 · update #1
For the same reason that Jesus got crucified!
The devil didnt't want the truth about God to get out,so that people would know how to be saved,and keep out of the lake of fire where the devil and his hordes are going,....soon,as the bible is almost finished!
2007-01-02 15:38:10 · answer #1 · answered by Wellll... hello then! 1 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Tyndale did not first translate the Bible into English. There were several English translations done before his, including the very first English translation, produced by the Catholic Church 80 years before Martin Luther was born. Tyndale's flawed, heretical translation was collected by the true Christian Church and destroyed in order to protect the purity and accuracy of God's Holy Word.
2016-03-14 00:53:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Wycliffe and Tyndale shared a common belief: that the Bible should be available to the common man in his own language, not just Latin (which meant that only highly educated Catholic priests and aristocracy could read the Bible as it existed in the early 14th century).
Tyndale took advantage of a new technology called the printing press to allow a much wider distribution of his translation of the Bible.
Thomas Wolsey, a cardinal of the Roman Catholic Church, condemned William Tyndale in 1526 for printing the New Testament in English.
Oddly enough, Tyndale's work was utilized heavily in the creation of the King James Bible some 75 years after his death.
With the publication of the Bible in English, common folk were free to study and understand the word of God for themselves. The priests, as well as the Catholic church, saw this as a direct attack on the monopoly of Bible knowledge and interpretation they had enjoyed for hundreds of years. Even today, I believe the Catholic church's official Bible is in Latin (ref link #2).
2007-01-02 16:09:53 · answer #3 · answered by jims2cents 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Because the Church didn't want people reading the Bible. PERIOD. That was what the Preists and Latin was for, to interpret the scriptures into english for the congregation. To put it into english was to "commonize" it, much like people no longer using Gods name Jehovah anymore. When the Bibles of 100 A.D. had it listed in the Old Testament over 6,000 times, you can only find it 4 times now. They just don't want somethings to be used!
It was only because of Gutenberg and the Printing Press that the Bible was finally accessible to all!
2007-01-02 15:41:18 · answer #4 · answered by AdamKadmon 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Because the priesthood wanted to keep the people in ignorance. The bible should be only in Latin, and the common people were not allowed to read. It was not until a few years ago that the Roman Catholic Church allowed the lay members to read the Bible. During my days, we were considered heretics if we dare to touch the Bible at all!
2007-01-02 15:42:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 0⤋
It use to be that a normal person would not pray to god. Only a priest would. Anything regarding the bible was in latin and then translated by the priests then given to the citizens. If a normal man read the bible he would not need the priest anymore and then could go and find his own path and keep the money that he would pay towards the priest to pray to god for him, for himself. Not very good for the church.
2007-01-02 15:36:22 · answer #6 · answered by Mo L 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
I don't know. If it was already done why did he have to do it again? Maybe they were just pissed off because he was doing it again and they didn't like it.
2007-01-02 15:35:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
because tyndale wasn't translating properly. he was changing what the bible said.
2007-01-02 15:33:59 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 7⤋
are you saying that there is no english bible? then what the hell do they read then
2007-01-02 15:35:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 5⤋