Does it mean that peoples who speak Indo-European languages are of the same origin?

Answer 1

I would assume that people speak the native language of the area they grow up in. But perhaps this is an overly simplistic look at your question.

If you are interested in the specifics of Indo-European languages, I would suggest checking out these Wikipedia articles (links below). It appears that this language group began in the Mesopotamian valley around 3500BC. Being of the Christian faith myself, I have to wonder if that is about the time construction of the Tower of Babel was suspended.

Enjoy!

Answer 2

As others have pointed out, people often end up speaking a language different from that of their ancestors. Just look at America - people in the US speak English, having come from Africa, all parts of Europe, from China, etc - on the other hand, in Latin America, most people speak Spanish or Portuguese, only a few still speak Quetchwa or Aymara, yet people have come from all over the world. In each case, people have learnt the language that was most useful for them to survive and prosper.

Having said that, when people move, languages can move too. There is no doubt that the spread of IE languages is connected with ancient movements and mixes of populations as a result of wars and of technological advances. Peoples that learnt agriculture, how to use horses, how to make iron tools, etc, enjoyed a temporary advantage over others.

As someone else said, we are all ultimately from the same origin anyway.

Answer 3

No, Indo-European languages are spoken in many places all over the world, and in a lot of cases people speak the language of a former colonial power.

By the way, we are all of the same origin.

Answer 4

No, Indo european languages have the same origin, but people who speak these languages don't.

because a language could spread accross a country whithout population movement.

Answer 5

No, because people often speak languages borrowed from other people, often when they are under the political control of the people whose language they have then to speak. That is how most people in Britain now speak a Germanic language instead of a Celtic one.

However, irrespective of language, all people are of the same origin, we are all descended from Adam and Eve and Noah (or if you believe the Evolutionists, from ape ancestors in Africa).

Answer 6

properly relies upon which Asian Language. i understand that Hindic languages come from Sanskrit, this additionally would provide help to! a million) Western languages (ones derived from Latin). They comprise English, Spanish, German, etc (in certainty a great number of the Western ecu languages which comprise Latin itself). 2) Greek 3) Slavic languages (which comprise Russian, Ukrainian, Bulgarian, etc). maximum of those languages, mutually with Russian and Ukrainian, are not in uncomplicated terms Slavic, because of the fact they have been heavily mixed with Greek throughout the Byzantine Empire (the comparable way that classic Anglican languages have been heavily mixed with Latin to create modern-day English). 4) Hindic languages (dozens, if no longer hundreds of them. ninety 9% come from Sanskrit). 5) Asian languages (do no longer understand too plenty approximately them). 6) close by American languages (have not have been given any theory approximately them the two). 7) African languages (even have not have been given any clue). 8) center jap languages (there are a pair of households right here. From what I considered, as an occasion, Persian would not look too comparable to Arabic.)

Answer 7

A person could be, for example, of Swahili descent, but he was born in Great Britain and speaks English only.

Ethnicity and language are not necessarily the same thing.

Answer 8

Not necessarily because the language travels when the people don't
Example, Spanish and Italian sound alike but Spain and Italy don't share boundaries.
French and Italy share boundaries but the languages differ

Answer 9

Not necessarily,they share cultural links though. Irish people speak english, because we were forced to when the English colonised us, but we are genetically different. I'm sure this applies to other countries too.

Answer 10

osi.psychologist - the reason Italian and Spanish sound alike is that they are both Romance languages, and based on Latin.