2007-01-02 07:03:28 · 8 answers · asked by jammy.greeny@talk21.com 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
Neither Crisps no Chips make more sense. Each is an idiomatic usage of language.
It sounds normal to you to use the word Crisps. As I understand it, you use the word chips for what we would call french fries, even though there is nothing chip like about rectanguloid pieces of fried potatoes. None is incorrect, only idiomatic.
2007-01-02 07:07:27 · answer #1 · answered by Radagast97 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Potato chips were invented in the US, but since the word "chips" was already in use, in England, THEY decided to call them crisps.
In England, chips are what we call fries.
And, since when do snack food names have to make any kind of sense? Ho Ho's, Fiddle Faddle, Skittles, etc.
2007-01-02 07:09:01 · answer #2 · answered by Vince M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
why do brits drive on the wrong side of the road?..the answer is you cant believe there is a better way than the british way on anything...your question proves. it..stop acting so self important UK, its bothersome.
2007-01-02 07:12:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do people in the UK call fries chips when it makes more sense to call them fries? (They're fried!) :)
2007-01-02 07:05:47 · answer #4 · answered by citrusgal 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Americans invented them, so they named them what they thought appropriate.
I think you would have to ask George Crum (the inventor).
2007-01-02 07:07:18 · answer #5 · answered by Mr 51 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It comes down that whats more popular
2007-01-02 07:06:50 · answer #6 · answered by chris a 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You speak English, we speak Americanish
2007-01-02 07:05:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's the way they call them I guess.
2007-01-02 07:04:41 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋