English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I had a man sign an as is note,but did not have it
notarized as it was after hrs., now am wondering if it is valid being I did not have it notarized, I did copy his drivers license number and put it on too, don't know if that will help with credability or not.

2007-01-02 05:13:15 · 4 answers · asked by sweetyebug3 4 in Cars & Transportation Buying & Selling

4 answers

An As-Is note covers the seller from any attempt on the buyer to renege on the sale, by saying you misrepresented the vehicle, at a later date. I am assuming this is a vehicle sale. I have done many sales this way, and I always make them sign an AS-IS note. You DO NOT need it notarized, as it is not a legal contract. It is for your protection, and you were smart to do it. But don't worry, no notarization is needed, you witnessed his signature and have back-up identification, and in case something goes haywire, which I doubt, your totally covered. I would make a copy of all your documents though, and put them away in a safe spot. Your'e using your head, good for you.

2007-01-02 05:27:40 · answer #1 · answered by msmaryanne3 4 · 0 0

You don't even need an "as is" note.... in the eyes of the law, every private sale is already considered "as is" sale. I mean you could even lie and tell them you guarantee the car and offer a money back guarantee.... but if you don't admit to it in court they can't enforce as long as you didn't put it in writing.... or they caught you saying it on a hidden voice recorder (can't be used as evidence in states where voice tapping is illegal).

2007-01-02 05:55:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is "buyer beware". A hand-written and signed note from a private seller is as legal as legal will get when buying person-to-person. Notorizing the paper does essentially nothing. When you buy something stated "as is", there is no warranty and you cannot get your money back, so beware.

2007-01-02 05:21:34 · answer #3 · answered by rex_rrracefab 6 · 0 0

Nope.

As long as the person selling notifies the person at the time of sale, preferable in writing on the bill of sale, and the person verifies either verbally or in writing that they have been notified, it doesn't have to notorized.

2007-01-02 05:18:49 · answer #4 · answered by Lemar J 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers