Before.
2007-01-02 03:55:00
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answer #1
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answered by Two Peas 7
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Obviously, AFTER (see below).
By the way, brilliantly worded question!
The term "lucifer" is not a bible NAME, but a term which is more precisely translated "shining one". Since the bible only uses the term translated "lucifer" in connection with the king of babylon, then clearly that babylonian king rebelled against God's purposes long AFTER the fall of man in Eden.
The term "lucifer" is found only once (and only in some bibles). It's only flawed tradition that has insisted that scripture means something other than what it obviously means. Here it is:
(Isaiah 14:4,12) You [Isaiah] must raise up this proverbial saying against the king of Babylon and say:... 12 “O how you have fallen from heaven, you shining one, son of the dawn! How you have been cut down to the earth, you who were disabling the nations!
Thanks for another question which exposes the ignorance of these pompous know-it-alls.
2007-01-03 13:47:37
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answer #2
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answered by PFSHJ 3
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Christians need to stop answering questions about their own mythology until they've read the book. Isaiah 12 has nothing to do with Satan. one proof:
12 How you have fallen from heaven,
O morning star (Lucifer), son of the dawn!
You have been cast down to the earth,
you who once laid low the nations!
what nations? if man did not yet exist...
16 Those who see you stare at you,
they ponder your fate:
"Is this the man who shook the earth
and made kingdoms tremble,
17 the man who made the world a desert,
who overthrew its cities
and would not let his captives go home?"
again, what kingdoms? what captives of which cities?
I hope this makes sense to whomever reads. this passage (where we get the word "lucifer" turned into a name) is referring to a babylonian king, I believe Nebuchadnezzar. Now consider this: "I would just DIE for another piece of your famous chocolate cake!" this is hyperbole, it is idiom, it is not literally translateable into many other languages. if you translated it literally some people would think you were too zealous about this cake and point out that if you died for it, you wouldn't be able to have it anyway. what does this mean then? the colourful language we read in Isaiah, and many other parts of the bible that seem odd, is all designed for the reader of that day! and in that place!!! the fact that this became Satan from before the fall only proves that more.
2007-01-02 12:07:19
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answer #3
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answered by Shawn M 3
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Lucifer is a man made idea... Even in the bible you can't really find Lucifer as an arch angel... If you look into the ancient text there is only one place that talks about Lucifer and that Lucifer in English means "Light holder", "Star" (a candle stand)... Lucifer was invented in the Catholic church and co-insists with the ancient pagen rituals of pre-christ.
2007-01-02 12:00:30
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answer #4
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answered by Geist König 4
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Neither.
"Lucifer" is a mythical creature made up by superstitious people who thought there had to be a "bad guy" to balance out the ideas of good and evil. The evolution of the idea of "the devil" in the bible is clear when you read it, and those ideas are mainly drawn from other cultures (most significantly Egyptian mythology).
And since the whole garden of eden story is also entirely an imagined myth, there was never any kind of "fall" of humans -- we've been the same ever since our species evolved from lower forms, though we are still evolving slowly.
These stories you folks spend so much time arguing over are MYTHS and FABLES -- stories made up to illustrate a point. Don't you think it's time, in the 21st century, that you started to be able to distinguish fantasy from reality?
2007-01-02 11:59:26
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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As most have answered, Satan's fall definately occured before the fall of man. Satan's fall is generally described at Ezekiel 28:11-19. Verse 16b tells us this happened when the earth was still comprised of "fiery stones." This enables us to understand that Satan's fall occurred sometime during day one of creation, as described within Genesis 1:1-2.
2007-01-02 12:04:24
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answer #6
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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Lucifers fall happened before. HIs rebellion still goes on.
2007-01-02 11:55:34
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answer #7
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answered by all in on the flop 4
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Before, man was still perfect until Lucifer tempted Eve
2007-01-02 12:00:43
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answer #8
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answered by Jason W 3
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Before. At the counsel before mortality, he wanted to force us to obey and thereby reclaim all of mankind back to the presence of God the Father. In return, he wanted all the glory. Jesus called Christ offered to serve as a savior to redeem any who fell who would repent, and satan was cast out of heaven. Only after that could there have been a tempted to try and test Adam in the garden, by which man fell and became mortal.
2007-01-02 11:57:34
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answer #9
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answered by Fergi the Great 4
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Are you referring to Lucifer and Satan as one?
The name Lucifer occurs once in the Scriptures and only in some versions of the Bible. For example, the King James Version renders Isaiah 14:12: “How art thou fallen from heaven, OÂ Lucifer, son of the morning!”
The Hebrew word translated “Lucifer” means “shining one.” The Septuagint uses the Greek word that means “bringer of dawn.” Hence, some translations render the original Hebrew “morning star” or “Daystar.” But Jerome’s Latin Vulgate uses “Lucifer” (light bearer), and this accounts for the appearance of that term in various versions of the Bible.
Who is this Lucifer? The expression “shining one,” or “Lucifer,” is found in what Isaiah prophetically commanded the Israelites to pronounce as a “proverbial saying against the king of Babylon.” Thus, it is part of a saying primarily directed at the Babylonian dynasty. That the description “shining one” is given to a man and not to a spirit creature is further seen by the statement: “Down to Sheol you will be brought.” Sheol is the common grave of mankind—not a place occupied by Satan the Devil. Moreover, those seeing Lucifer brought into this condition ask: “Is this the man that was agitating the earth?” Clearly, “Lucifer” refers to a human, not to a spirit creature.—Isaiah 14:4, 15, 16.
Why is such an eminent description given to the Babylonian dynasty? We must realize that the king of Babylon was to be called the shining one only after his fall and in a taunting way. (Isaiah 14:3) Selfish pride prompted Babylon’s kings to elevate themselves above those around them. So great was the arrogance of the dynasty that it is portrayed as bragging: “To the heavens I shall go up. Above the stars of God I shall lift up my throne, and I shall sit down upon the mountain of meeting, in the remotest parts of the north. . . . I shall make myself resemble the Most High.”—Isaiah 14:13, 14.
“The stars of God” are the kings of the royal line of David. (Numbers 24:17) From David onward, these “stars” ruled from Mount Zion. After Solomon built the temple in Jerusalem, the name Zion came to apply to the whole city. Under the Law covenant, all male Israelites were obliged to travel to Zion three times a year. Thus, it became “the mountain of meeting.” By determining to subjugate the Judean kings and then remove them from that mountain, Nebuchadnezzar is declaring his intention to put himself above those “stars.” Instead of giving Jehovah credit for the victory over them, he arrogantly puts himself in Jehovah’s place. So it is after being cut down to the earth that the Babylonian dynasty is mockingly referred to as the “shining one.”
The pride of the Babylonian rulers indeed reflected the attitude of “the god of this system of things”—Satan the Devil. (2Â Corinthians 4:4) He too lusts for power and longs to place himself above Jehovah God. . But Lucifer is not a name Scripturally given to Satan.
2007-01-02 11:59:32
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answer #10
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answered by Tomoyo K 4
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