The Bible never denies that there were other hominids before during and after the Garden of Eden episode.
In fact their are about 10 places in the Bible when the Jews met, fought, and intermixed with "other" people. Who were these other people, if not non-jews, non-Adam bloodline people.
Have we forgotten that the Bible is the history of (only) the Jewish bloodline: Proof only Jewish names are in the Bible (begettings)
2007-01-01 14:43:15
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answer #1
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answered by MrsOcultyThomas 6
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Genesis 4:17 says, "Cain lay with his wife, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Enoch." Who was his wife? It is implied in the biblical text that Cain married one of his sisters. Several facts lead us to this conclusion.
First, it is clear that Adam and Eve had a number of children. Genesis 5:4 says, "After Seth was born, Adam lived 800 years and had other sons and daughters." Since Adam and Eve were the first man and woman, and since God had commanded them (and their descendants) to be fruitful and multiply (Genesis 1:28), it seems reasonable to conclude that Cain married one of his many sisters. It is also possible that he married a niece or even a grandniece.
One must keep in mind that in the early years of the human race there were no genetic defects that had yet developed as a result of the fall of man. By the time of Abraham, God had not yet declared this kind of marriage to be contrary to His will (see Genesis 20:12). Laws governing incest apparently did not become enacted until the time of Moses (Lev 18:7-17; 20:11,12,14,17,20,21). Hence, there was no prohibition regarding marrying a sister (or niece or grandniece) in the days of Cain.
To learn more on this subject you can go to http://www.answersingenesis.org
2007-01-01 15:20:48
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answer #2
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answered by Freedom 7
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Their children had children.
Intra-familily relationships were not prohibited at the time.
Adam & Eve
Cain, Abel, Seth
and Genesis 5...
Gen 5:4 And the days of Adam after he had begotten Seth were eight hundred years: and he begat sons and daughters:
It is the offspring of Seth that is followed in geneology to Noah.
2007-01-01 14:46:40
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answer #3
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answered by Bob L 7
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Their children having relations with each other........ People of course say thats immoral, but that was nearly 2400 years before the laws of Moses were decreed, so technically there were no established laws that they were breaking. It was a lawless state, that is why the Old Testament laws had to be created - to supervise mankind until faith in Christ could come. Galatians 3.
2007-01-01 15:04:07
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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well you take your male..then you take your female and you ummmmm join them at the private parts then ummm you wait 10 minutes or less for the guy to ummmm explode then you separate the people and you have a baby in 9 months. Incest was not hear of back then because they were creating a new species of humans. So in a way all people are related.
2007-01-01 14:46:10
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answer #5
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answered by ambi 4
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God told them to have kids, to be fruitful and multiply. Their children had children. And, yes, their children had to have sex with each other to do this. BUt, in that day and time, the bloodline was pure, and it wasnt a sin, till after the fall. But, that was all the ppl there were then, and to multiply the earth with more ppl, this is what they had to do. BUt, God does not look on this stuff the same now. Now , the bloodline is no longer pure. Sin and disease have changed it all, and it is a sin now. there are other ppl for us to mate with, than our own family. So, yes it was possible and was okeyed by God. Greatquestion.
2007-01-01 14:46:05
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answer #6
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answered by full gospel shirley 6
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The only reason incest doesnt work today is because our DNA doesnt have any of that lovely immortal-Eden-molecules in it. Look at it hypothetically. There's nothing inherently wrong with beginning mankind that way. If they were able to do it without jacking up the genes, so be it. Whats the problem. It has to start somewhere.
2016-05-23 04:50:10
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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Adam and Eve = symbolic creation story meant to POINT to truth and not to be taken literally
2007-01-01 14:43:36
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Technically they didn't have grandkids because language had not yet been invented and they didn't have a word for grandkids.
2007-01-01 14:44:36
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Incest wasn't viewed the same way then as it is now. God permitted it in order to populate the earth.
2007-01-01 14:43:27
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answer #10
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answered by stpolycarp77 6
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