How was Noah able to put forth an effective curse (the curse of Ham), without it being divination? Was this curse supported by God almighty? It seems that most other prophacies were written as a direct result of communications from God almighty and not as a result of an angry chosen one/ prophet, etc.
How was Noah able to effectuate such a significant occurance, or is there another explanation?
Looking for scriptural references that God supported and effectuated this curse. Or was it simply Noah uttering a divination?
Your views please.
PS - Happy New Year to all!
2007-01-01 09:13:50 · 2 answers · asked by LadyB!™ 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It doesn't say , the only thing it says about Noah is that he was found to be righteous
2007-01-01 09:16:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't see any scripture about it--though I do have a few theories of my own, now that you mention it...
2007-01-01 17:17:44 · answer #2 · answered by angk 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋