The "woman", being "deceived", was in the transgression: 1Tim 2:14. But where no law, there no transtgression: Romans 4:15. So the woman, being deceived, was in the law (connecting the dots).
The "woman" shall say a dble "Amen, amen" to blessed + cursed: Numbers (notably the first mention of "amen" in the bible). So the term "woman" seems to be a derogatory term, not complimentary.
Woman seems to be an allegory for Church, and "silly women" taken captive would be silly churches who are legalistic(bewitched).
Yet even when the adult "woman" caught in adult-ery is brought unto the Son of God for his judgment in John 8:3-11, his judgment [after twice stooping and twice writing on the ground (perhaps writing grounded if legalistic) and thereby clearing the room of all accusers and condemners]... his judgment after twice risen is: Neither do I condemn(law) thee; Go and sin(law) no more. Which things are an "allegory": Galatians 4, and "mystery" to solve in time.
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2007-01-01 04:47:27 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
While we are the same in dignity we are not the same as each have a role seperate from the other. It was at this time Jesus gave Mary to all humanity as Mother her role as a woman.
2007-01-01 05:09:18 · answer #1 · answered by Gods child 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think I once heard that the original word translated as "woman," that He called Mary, was a respectful way to refer to a woman. Possibly something like Ma'am only probably not such an awkward way to refer to one's mother. I heard a pastor say mention that in a sermon once.
2007-01-01 12:59:45 · answer #2 · answered by Lady of the Garden 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ramen !
2007-01-01 12:52:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋