why does Paul mention the Greeks why do they matter?

Question

Romans 1:16

Answer 1

Because that is the context and the times in which he is writing. At the time thet Paul writes the letter to the Romans the major language is GREEK. In fact the Old Testament is translated from Hebrew to English for us to read. The New Testament is translated from Greek to English for us to read.

When we read the Bible we need to read it in the original "context" in which it was written. When Paul is writing Romans, it is several years since Jesus went back to heaven and after the Jews have been scattered through out much of we now call Europe and Asia, at Paul's time occupied and run by a Roman and Greek society.

So that's why you see so much of that reffered to through out Paul's letters....

Hope that helps some

Jesus Loves You

Answer 2

He used interchangeably,the word gentile and Greek for anyone who was not a Jew.He spent alot of time in the Greek world as he was the Apostle to the gentiles.Turkey(Asia) was mostly Greek at that time and there were founded 7 great churches there alone.Cyprus was Greek,and of course the Macedonian area and Achaia were all Greek.So he likes Greeks what's it to ya?

Answer 3

They were a representation of Gentiles everywhere. The largest, organized population of Gentiles were Greeks. Paul first preached to the Jews, then when he was rejected, went to the Gentiles. Acts 17 gives an account of Paul preaching in Greece.

Answer 4

To the stunned Jewish disciples, Jesus intended them to reach out to the Greeks/Gentiles. They were so hesitant that the Holy Spirit had to blow the doors off where they were hiding (Acts 2). Paul mentions the Greeks because they represented the "known" civilized world. He was announcing, confirming, and asserting that the message of grace was for all people.

Answer 5

He mentions them in contrast to the Hebrews. As Paul was a Jew converted to Christianity, he was writing, culturally, from the Jewish standpoint, and to people who understood the Jewish view (as even gentile Christians of the time did). For the Jews, anyone who was a non-Jew was referred to as a Greek, as all of civilized Europe and Northern Africa spoke Greek - it was the language of culture at the time. To such a point that "Greek" became synonymous with "pagan" or "gentile" or "non-Jew".

Answer 6

Paul spoke greek

Answer 7

I think you may have meant Romans 1:14?

Basically Paul was showing that he preached the Good News to everyone. He was not partial to a particular race or class as he also mentions barbarians in that context.

He also was the one that counseled Peter because he withdrew from eating with the non Jews that had become Christians thus showing true nonpartiality:

However, when Ce′phas came to Antioch, I resisted him face to face, because he stood condemned. For before the arrival of certain men from James, he used to eat with people of the nations; but when they arrived, he went withdrawing and separating himself, in fear of those of the circumcised class. The rest of the Jews also joined him in putting on this pretense, so that even Bar′na·bas was led along with them in their pretense. But when I saw they were not walking straight according to the truth of the good news, I said to Ce′phas before them all: “If you, though you are a Jew, live as the nations do, and not as Jews do, how is it that you are compelling people of the nations to live according to Jewish practice?” -Galatians 2:11-14

Answer 8

The Gospel / Gods Saving Grace was preached to the Jews (Messianic) first, then to the Greeks. The Greeks represent the gentiles from all nations. The Gentiles believed in Jesus and were born of God, becoming children of God and part of the family of God. Jesus Christ was brought forth from Israel and is a Jew in His humanity. Jesus made a way for Israel to be restored to God and the resut of us to be restored in relationship with God.

It matters very much.

Answer 9

"Greeks" is euphemisitic for "Gentiles" [Non-Jews]...meaning they are synonymous. Christians today would understand "Greeks...Gentiles" as unbelievers...non-Christians. "Some scholars acknowledge the possibility that these at Antioch may have been both Jews and Gentiles familiar with the Greek language, and so they describe them with the expression “Greek-speaking people.” "...the good news; it is, in fact, God’s power for salvation to everyone having faith, to the Jew first and also to the Greek..."

Answer 10

The Greeks matter a lot, but since Paul was a liar and a fraud, by his own admission, I would have to say that it is Paul that doesn't