2006-12-31 12:21:12 · 14 answers · asked by Shybruh 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Insurance
If the bills are in both names, the spouse is just as liable.
In some states debts incurred during a marriage by one partner are the responsibility of the living spouse. (Community Property)
If the bills are in the deceased name only (and there is a will), his/her estate is responsible. The executor/executrix of the will works with the creditors.
PER ESTATES: In the wills in which I have been a part of, the standard is for the Executor/Executrix of the will to be directed to FIRST "pay off" the bills of the deceased from the deceased's estate BEFORE the survivor(s) get a penny.
When there is no will, the State steps in as Executor.
The estate = ALL the assets of the deceased.
2006-12-31 12:37:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on whether or not the debt is in the dead person's name alone or if the spouse is also listed as a debtor.
If there are debts incurred by the dead person solely and the dead person left money to a named beneficiary (and not an estate), then the surviving spouse may be able to escape the obligation to pay off the dead person's debts.
By the way, the manner of death has no bearing on the need not to repay the debt.
2006-12-31 13:02:42 · answer #2 · answered by markmywordz 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, in most cases this will be taken to court and the court may decide to set up a affordable payment program for you, the only way out is if the spouse had insurance. Or if the bills were acquired before marriage.
2006-12-31 13:17:33 · answer #3 · answered by six 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it would not count number how an more desirable 0.5 dies, the surviving better 0.5 is responsible for any debt incurred in the course of the marriage. maximum existence insurance guidelines have clauses declaring there'll be no fee made contained in the shape the guy dies from a suicide. I easily wish you do not make plans something for your self or your spouse. you've were given to confess, inspite of the indisputable fact that, it truly is a uncommon question.
2016-12-01 09:20:30 · answer #4 · answered by Erika 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, unless and until an Insurance covers this clause of bill payment as well.
2006-12-31 12:28:08 · answer #5 · answered by Antonio M 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i wouldnt say debt goes to the closest relative, it goes to the spouse because they are married, if my brother died i wouldnt get his bills, if my wife died i would have to pay the bills,because they are actually OUR bills,we are married
2006-12-31 12:31:20 · answer #6 · answered by swenjj 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes I believe they do, check your with state though.
2006-12-31 12:30:22 · answer #7 · answered by kittycat lover 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes if they arent paid the other one has to pay them off
2006-12-31 12:23:48 · answer #8 · answered by prettybird 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, that is one of the reasons we have bankruptcy laws.
2006-12-31 19:31:26 · answer #9 · answered by Atlanta, GA 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-12-31 12:29:34 · answer #10 · answered by cesare214 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋