2006-12-30 10:13:33 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It came from the Nuremberg Trails after WWII.
The definition has always been fuzzy it depends on the politics and nations who write the definition.
Example people wanted "Crimes against humanity" brought against the U-boats in WWII. The US objected because they were doing the same to Japan.
To be honest there is no universal accepted definition because we don't have universal accepted definition of morals.
2006-12-30 10:24:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The 'definition' is 'Crimes Against Humanity' sounds more important that whatever actually happened. OK that's not an actual definition, but its closer to the actual usage than anything you'll find in any official source.
Try finding a definition for "War on Poverty".
2006-12-30 10:48:41 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try the site below.
2006-12-30 12:13:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crimes_against_humanity
2006-12-30 10:20:57 · answer #4 · answered by Candy 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋