You know as usual. United States has different spellings of the English language to the United Kingdom. Like all words containing an "ise" are "ize" because they believe in spelling the words "phonetically" (why don't they spell that "faneticly" then??) but this did not include the word "advertisement" (pr. ad-ver-tiss-ment)? This has puzzled me for a looooong time.. Help!
2006-12-30 02:43:03 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
It is still pronounced like "ize" so why didn't they change it?
2006-12-30 02:45:35 · update #1
I agree with you on the Americans. But leave the Jews alone, please. I am not Jewish but have no issues with them because they are just believing in their faith, just like Christians and Muslims. So lay off Jews.
2006-12-30 02:46:36 · update #2
You say that I have answered my own question, but what I'm trying to say is that we pronounce it like "ad-ver-tiss-ment" but Americans pronounced it like "ad-ver-tize-ment" so why didn't they change the spelling from the British way. And although our spelling comes from French, it still looks more correct to spell using "ise" than "ize" which looks common!
2007-01-01 05:30:26 · update #3
I think you have answered your own question: it's pronounced ad-ver tiSS-ment, not ad-ver-tiZ-ment.
BTW, "-ize" is historically the better way to spell this verbal ending; the "-ise" used in the UK is because of French influence.
2006-12-30 02:48:02 · answer #1 · answered by JJ 7 · 2⤊ 7⤋
Spelling Of Advertisement
2016-12-12 12:57:52 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Apparently a lot of English words didn't have a fixed orthography until relativly quite late. What you are often looking at are different ways that words were spelt in the UK 200/300 years ago. Bill Bryson goes into this (it may be 'Notes from a Big Country'). As things settled down the different nations ended up making different choices. Teachers are people who make rules afterwards not before (which of course would be Much More Sensible).
Issall very irritating but sometimes there is no Reason, only History. Oh, and of course, the Americans.
2006-12-30 03:02:56 · answer #3 · answered by Richard T 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
American English has many spelling differences from English as used elsewhere (especially British English), some of which were made as part of an attempt to make more rational[citation needed] the spelling used in Britain at the time. Unlike many 20th century language reforms (for example, Turkey's alphabet shift, Norway's spelling reform) the American spelling changes were not driven by government, but by textbook writers and dictionary makers. Spelling tendencies in Britain from the 17th century until the present day (e.g. -ise for -ize, programme for program, kerb for curb (noun), skilful for skillful, chequered for checkered, etc.), in some cases favored by the francophile tastes of 19th century Victorian England, had little effect on American English.
The first American dictionary was written by Noah Webster in 1828. At the time the United States was a relatively new country and Webster's particular contribution was to show that the region spoke a different dialect from Britain, and so he wrote a dictionary with many spellings differing from the standard. Many of these changes were initiated unilaterally by Webster.
Webster also argued for many "simplifications" to the idiomatic spelling of the period. Many, although not all, of his simplifications fell into common usage alongside the original versions with simple spelling modifications.
Some words with simplified spellings in American English include center, color, and maneuver, which are spelled centre, colour, and manoeuvre in other forms of English.
2006-12-30 02:54:30 · answer #4 · answered by ffordcash 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There is no such thing as American English. English is English and if Americans want to have their own language let them get their own and not corrupt ours. They're only jealous because they are used to being the biggest etc. and don't like English being the most widely used language in the world.
2007-01-05 20:53:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's coz they're Americans and cannot fully understand or spell the English language properly.
How does a question about spelling turn into a religious hatred rant - Haha - That's religion for ya - lol
2006-12-30 02:52:42 · answer #6 · answered by Sir Nickle Barsteward 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
ah, me...the weird and wonderful vagaries of the english language. If you ever find THE answer to this sort of spelling/pronunciation inconsistency question, bottle and sell it - you'll make a million.
2006-12-30 03:29:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why don't Americans change any of their spellings now they know how incorrect they are?
2007-01-05 03:44:01 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I hadn't realised they'd changed the spelling of 'it'. What have they changed it to?
2006-12-30 03:44:25 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because you advertize not advertiss.... or something ....AW ..He** I don't know!!
good luck
2006-12-30 02:54:22 · answer #10 · answered by .G. 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋