Why is it, that in the New Testament, we can read about the fallen angels, i.e. devils, demons, wicked and evil spirits. But, in the Old Testament the word devil is used for the idols and images that were worshipped?
2006-12-29 21:08:22 · 9 answers · asked by n_007pen 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Idols and images were and are used by the devil and satan to divert people from God. why was it not written in the O.T.? is not the matter
we should be thankfull that it is written in the N.T to our generation to be aware of it and keep us safe under the wings of God the Father.
2006-12-29 21:44:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Isaiah 14:12, How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!
It goes on to say what his crimes were, why he rebelled.
And behind every false god or idol was a demon or devil. Its a theme held thru out the Old Testament. It was brought up again in the New Testament as the names of the false gods had changed, but the demons behind their worship were the same.
2006-12-30 05:32:05 · answer #2 · answered by Mr O 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ok, first things first... I'll just use one example, but we do find talk of fallen angels in the Old Testament... check out Isaiah 14...
The second thing I want you to keep in mind is this: in the Judeo-Christian tradition, worship of ANYTHING other than God is idolatry... and as Lucifer made every attempt to place himself in a position of worship above God, he (the devil) is the ultimate in idolatry.
Finally, what I want you to remember is that there are many words from many languages that translate differently depending on how they are used... In the OldTestament the word devil is sometimes translated from the Hebrew word sair (meaning Goat or Satyr) referring most likely to wood-daemons (objects of worship among the "heathens"). Sometimes the word devil is translate from the Hebrew shed, which actually refers to what the Jews believed to be evil spirits.
Incidentally... the word devil as we use it is at its most basic can be broken down to diaballein (sorry, I can't figure out how to use accent marks on here), which literally translates as "to slander" or "to assault someone's character" which is the role Satan play today.
2006-12-30 05:42:11 · answer #3 · answered by Rev T L Clark 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Different times and eras.In the Old Testament it seems that the demons or evil spirits had names, such as baal.
Also the HOLY Spirit did not come until Jesus which could account for some of the terminology.
2006-12-30 05:18:00 · answer #4 · answered by mythoughts 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think its because Greeks that found the old testament books more realistic than their own history, but could see that it was only for the Jews, attempted to mingle primitive Greek superstition with ancient Jewish religion and walla, you have the new testament extreme difference to old Jewish beliefs, but still tying itself in to the 'more realistic' history. For some greeks they beleived in the many gods view, but the jews at that time had a 1 god view, so the gods became demons in disguise. This is still even taught today by many christians.
2006-12-30 05:13:54 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Different authors. The old testament is Hebrew/Aramaic. The new testament is (Koine)Greek
2006-12-30 05:28:50 · answer #6 · answered by Barabas 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
old testament was written in Hebrew, New testament in Greek, translated into english with words that maynot exactly express the original writers meanings.
2006-12-30 05:24:35 · answer #7 · answered by MJR 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
because they are stories written by man and never actually the word of god that came in one succint block. The book is alegory, dont try to look for a combined story line. just be good to thy neighbour
2006-12-30 05:15:39 · answer #8 · answered by delprofundo 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I dunno!
2006-12-30 05:11:11 · answer #9 · answered by roughdude_16 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋