2006-12-29 10:53:18 · 10 answers · asked by sexellent26 1 in Travel ➔ Caribbean ➔ Puerto Rico
Part of Mexico is (Texas, California, New Mexico, Arizona).
I guess we never got around to finishing the job.
2006-12-29 11:01:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
As a result of the Spanish-American War of 1898, Spain ceded, or GAVE, to the U.S. Puerto Rico. Puerto Rico has never decided whether to become a state or an independent country........so, it has remained a territory ever since.
The U.S. also won a war against Mexico and was given much of the south western part of the nation.
The U.S. furthered coveted Mexican land and bought a section on the New Mexico/Arizona/Mexico border called the Gadsen Purchase. The remaining part of Mexico is a independent federal republic, like the U.S.
2006-12-29 19:05:32 · answer #2 · answered by dondee31 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mexico and Puerto Rico were both part of New Spain, the holdings of the Spanish Empire in North America. Mexico had enough people and wealth to manage its own affairs, and in the 1800s managed to free itself from the Spanish Empire. At the time, Puerto Rico was a small, neglected, poor colony that had no motive or power to win its independence. After Spain was defeated by the United States in the Spanish American War, it was forced to hand over its remaining colonies, including Puerto Rico, to the US in the early 1900's. Under American occupation, the conditions in Puerto Rico castly improved, to the extent that Puerto Rico could govern itself as a commonwealth autonomous of the USA. It remains to be seen what Puerto Rico's future holds.
2006-12-29 11:10:21 · answer #3 · answered by Wicaco 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Puerto Rico was part of Spain. Mexico was an independent country and still is...but Puerto Rico was turned over to the U.S. as "spoils of war" after the war between US and Spain. However, the U.S. President at the time, McKinley, set up P.R. as an independent territory so that it was not required to become a state.
2006-12-29 10:59:19 · answer #4 · answered by lotsaanswers 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Puerto Rico became a territory of the US because of their annexation from Spain after the Spanish-American War of 1898.
2006-12-29 11:04:36 · answer #5 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because the peace-loving USA went to war with Spain and claimed Puerto Rico as 'spoils of war' in the treaty that ended the war - along with the Phillipines!
Perhaps setting an example that wars of conquest WAY off US shores don't work (you listening, 'Dubya'?), the Phillipines were set up to get independence. (Though there were groups trying for it a lot earlier than the US wanted.)
The US President set up PR as a dependency, not to get it part of the USA as a State (unlike Hawaii, which the peace-loving USA actually invaded, even tho a British Dependency at the time!).
Mexico, having lost California, New Mexico, Arizona, etc, to the peace-loving USA, was an independent country and managed to protect its remaining areas from the expansionist trends of the (said peace-loving) USA.
[That's partly why Panama has the Canal, too, though practical matters did play a part.]
2006-12-29 11:08:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
That question is the answer to why many Mexicans hate Puerto Ricans, because we are citizens. The thing is that that law (Jones) was made during WWI. Meaning that the Puerto Ricans had to fight in the war representing the US (How convenient!!!). US took territory from Mexico but didn't take all of it. US kicked out Spain from the Island and I'm glad they did.
God bless you. :)
2006-12-31 08:21:03 · answer #7 · answered by Lady Di 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because Mexico is a country while PR belongs to the US.
PS. Not all Mexicans hate Boricuas. I'm mixed with Mexican and Boricua.
2006-12-31 09:34:06 · answer #8 · answered by ♥Boricua♥ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mexico is a country, P.R is a commonwealth
2007-01-02 06:00:53 · answer #9 · answered by DDT 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because US still have financial Interest in PR....
2006-12-30 08:08:58 · answer #10 · answered by shinningstarofthecarribean 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋