2006-12-29 08:42:09 · 12 answers · asked by bvoganez_101 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Ancient Hebrew
2006-12-29 15:21:14 · answer #1 · answered by Freedom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, Native Americans were already in America at that time. They left Eurasia tens of thousands of years before the Biblical time-frame for the life of Noah and the Flood. In Mesopotamia, where the flood may have occurred, they would have probably spoken some kind of Proto-Semitic.
2006-12-29 08:45:58 · answer #2 · answered by darth_maul_8065 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The same as after it. The Jewish language, along with all the others, didn't come about until after the Tower of Babel.
2006-12-29 09:10:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not sure but everyone spoke the same language until the tower of Babel according to the Bible.
2006-12-29 08:44:43 · answer #4 · answered by James C 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Noah continued after the flood, so it would have been a form of the Hebrew/Aramaic languages that came after him.
2006-12-29 08:49:02 · answer #5 · answered by guitar teacher 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Pre-deluvian?
2006-12-29 08:44:57 · answer #6 · answered by Lukusmcain// 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Adamic or Adamese?
2006-12-29 08:43:38 · answer #7 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
how can we know an anciat form of hebrew may be ???
2006-12-29 08:45:19 · answer #8 · answered by Mim 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Wild guess-- wishful thinking ===
HEBREW!
(OK moon god worshippers- cry your eyes out!)
2006-12-29 08:46:17 · answer #9 · answered by whynotaskdon 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
They didn't. They just grunted.
2006-12-29 08:47:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋