2006-12-29 05:55:10 · 36 answers · asked by H3llShadow 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The story is a lie.
2006-12-29 05:56:51 · answer #1 · answered by Zhukov 4 · 3⤊ 4⤋
Actually, the Immaculate Conception refers to Mary being born without Original Sin. She was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus because He was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit. This is called the Virgin Birth.
2006-12-29 06:06:42 · answer #2 · answered by Col 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was impregnated "by the power of the Holy Spirit," and gave birth to a son, whom she named Jesus.
That's how.
After Jesus was born, Mary may physically have not had her hymen in tact, but that doesn't make her "not a virgin." She remained a virgin until her death.
And yes, that means Joseph was a Saint!
2006-12-29 06:02:01 · answer #3 · answered by jbtascam 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Cannot our Creator who made us from dust and blew life into us
create the baby in Virgin Mary's womb and blow the Spirit of Christ to be born as a human being.
If you believe God created us, why even question the virgin birth of Christ.
2006-12-29 06:06:31 · answer #4 · answered by Charles H 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Luke 1:35 explains:
"the angel said to Mary: “Holy spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God’s Son.
Basically, God caused her to become pregnant, not a man.
She could say she was pregnant and gave birth without ever having sex with a man.
2006-12-29 06:00:13 · answer #5 · answered by Uncle Thesis 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
She "conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit," "for with God all things are possible."
P.S. The Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception teaches that Mary was conceived without original sin. It has nothing to do with the virgin birth.
2006-12-29 05:59:51 · answer #6 · answered by Maurus B. 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Immaculate Deception
2006-12-29 06:06:10 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
virgin birth = commonly-used religious metaphor to symbolize the awakening of consciousness. It was used to describe both Jesus' and the Buddha's enlightenment experiences. It has NOTHING to do with birth, mothers, or Mary.
2006-12-29 06:08:45 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary did not have vaginal interourse with any male so her hyman was intact. An angel of god, impregnated her by a special miraculous method with the seed of GOD so that she could bear his earthly son for him.
The new movie "The Nativity" tell the story very well and explains it. There were doubters at the time as there are now, but that is the explanation.
2006-12-29 05:59:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
It's the doctrine of Immaculate Conception, which holds that Mary was preserved from the stain of Original Sin (a whole other concept) at the time of her conception.
Scientifically, this is called parthenogenesis, and it has never been observed in a human being.
2006-12-29 05:59:26 · answer #10 · answered by Jeff 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
This question is being asked over and over and over.
She was not a virgin-----it was a mis-translation of the NT. When the Hebrew was translated into the Greek Septuagint, one very important word was not translated correctly.
The Greek translation was wrong. Naarah is found in many places in Torah, always means a young woman (perhaps virgin perhaps not). Betulah is found in many places in Torah, always means a virgin. They used the wrong translation for the Hebrew word ''naarah''.
2006-12-29 06:01:53 · answer #11 · answered by Shossi 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋