A lot of people believe the KJV is the only accurate version of the bible in the world. It was written in 1611. What are your thoughts?
2006-12-29 04:45:03 · 14 answers · asked by Emperor Insania Says Bye! 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Of course not. That is the way the commoners spoke in the 1600s. and King James wanted a bible produced that the commoners could actually read instead of being written in Latin the commoners could not understand.
2006-12-29 08:01:40 · answer #1 · answered by Rev. Two Bears 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well yes, it's miraculous, actually - way back in Jesus' time, they spoke Shakespearian English, in order to make sure they were being holy. In fact that's the language spoken in the Garden of Eden.
Seriously, the King James Version was a kind of oecumenical translation, because King James didn't like the Geneva Bible put out bythe more devout Evangelicals.
The King James Version is translated from the Greek texts pieced together by Erasmus. Because Erasmus was not able to find all of the Greek texts (of the New Testament), he actually translated a few chapters into Greek from the Latin Vulgate!
Today we have far more trustworthy manuscripts. So the more modern translations are more accurate than the King James version.
2006-12-29 12:52:23 · answer #2 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes, in the original 1611 King James version and the revised version of 1912, God used thee and thou, The new King James version does not use it.
2006-12-29 12:53:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There has been a lot of material discovered since 1611 which has been incorporated into later versions. "Thee" and "thou" were common speech at the time, hence were plausible translations of the original texts which of course were in languages other than English. Many newer versions use more contemporary versions of the language, and are as a result much easier to read, as well as more meaningful to today's readers. But the best translations in the world can't get rid of the hundreds of errors in the text.
2006-12-29 12:51:38 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Who said it was written in 1611? Who was the first "history writer" to say that it was? How did that person know? Whose rules to go by?
Upon looking at the Tyndale of 1530s, the Geneva Bible of the 1590s, all available on-line, I concluded that the name "king James" bible is a misnomer.
My belief is that the words themselves were published long before James I ever lived.
There is no original bible. Paper doesn't last a thousand years, let alone 2000 years. There really is no "early manuscript" of any kind. Who gets to decide what script is early enough?
God must have said "thou." Thou is a word used in speaking to only one person who is the doer of an action.
God must have said "thee." It is used to describe one person on the receiving end of an action. Since each of us is an individual, it makes sense that God would use words that signify individuality.
It would make sense for him to use words to bridge ancient, medieval, and modern language.
God could not have changed his mind in medieval times about what he had said before in ancient times.
Also, the king james bible doesn't deny that Jesus is God, not even in subtle ways as modern "versions" do.
Hard words in the king james bible have easier words similar in their meaning within the chapter itself. Its wording makes the reader have to think. In the interests of free thought and expression, that's the bible we need.
Also, the king james bible is an anti-slavery bible. The word "slave" is only in that book twice. Modern versions have the word "slave" almost ever other chapter, along with other absurdities and nonsense.
I hope this helps. Keep reading.
2007-01-01 23:56:24 · answer #5 · answered by Bubba 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
To be technical thee only "accurate" version would be the one that was written in the original text by the original author.....However, have you heard the story of Alexandria.....they had a lot of professionals (like 30) separately translate the Bible from it original text to Greek so that the people of Greece could read it and then when they came back together to compare translations they were all exactly the same..... Now that is not just luck, that was God!!!
2006-12-29 12:53:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
it was translated not written. the only accurate version of the bible is the original texts.
2006-12-29 12:47:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
didn't most peeps in 1611 still think the planet was flat, and believed witches were everywhere seducing goats and whatnot. They still weren't too far removed from the caves at that point in history.
2006-12-29 12:53:37 · answer #8 · answered by Reisnoh 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The original middle eastern tales and legends were not written in english. Their fictional characters were not american. Hard to believe but true....
2006-12-29 12:52:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I think the only ones who still use "thee and Thou" are the odd Catholics and Charlton Heston, who thinks he is Moses!
2006-12-29 12:50:09 · answer #10 · answered by paranthropus2001 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋