English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

like Bastet is really pronounced "bast" (with 'a' sound like in ball).
I have heard a theory that the second 't' was added some time long after the use of the name because some people, I think the greeks that came later, thought it was silent like with some words, so the extra 't' was added to emphasised its pronounciation.
This may have led people in the very late future to assume their must have been a vowel sound between the two 't's

2006-12-29 04:17:30 · 2 answers · asked by ancientSEKHMET 1 in Society & Culture Languages

2 answers

They deduced what the vowels must have been by comparing hieroglyphics to later versions of the language, including Hieratic, Coptic, or even Greek. This is not exact, however, because pronunciation can change with time, but it's our best bet.

In other cases, the vowels were simply "assigned" (i.e. "invented").

Come to think of it, in modern Arabic, the vowels associated with a word often change depending on case, so even if you figured out the vowels that went along with the nominative form of a particular hieroglyph, that doesn't necessarily mean that the same pronunciation would apply to its accusative form, as well.

Incidentally, that second "t" at the end of "Bastet" reminds me a bit of the Arabic "ta'marbuta," a letter added to the end of words to indicate that it is feminine, that is sometimes pronounced as an "a" or "ah" or "eh" and sometimes as a " t " (especially when followed by a word beginning with a vowel sound). I don't suppose there's any correspondance between this modern Arabic letter and the ancient Egyptian ending of Bastet, but it might be worth looking into.

2006-12-29 04:28:59 · answer #1 · answered by magistra_linguae 6 · 1 0

it truly is an attempt to instruct their 'training'. And to discredit people who use Jehovah's call on a usual foundation. in simple terms devil stands to learn, if Jehovah's call isn't familiar or used. I truly have many times questioned the comparable element; if it truly is optimal to apply the call 'Jesus" or ANY of the different names interior the bible, no be counted if or no longer that they had initially been in Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic, while they have been adapted to our elementary use interior the language we communicate, what distinction is there interior the call of Jehovah? particularly to those who insist that Jesus and Jehovah are one and the comparable. it truly is okay to apply the english for one portion of the trinity, yet no longer for the different? If we KNEW the acceptable pronunciation of the divine call, and a few had a speech impediment-who might say that God won't settle for the attempt from that one to assert and glorify His call? If Jehovah is prepared to settle for worship from somebody who can not pronounce His call precisely because it initially grow to be stated-why would not He settle for it from every physique making an uncomplicated attempt? An attempt is greater effective than what the rest do, besides. it truly is greater effective to objective and fall short than to by no skill attempt in any respect. My call, working example is asserted with an 's'-no longer a 'z'-yet many human beings pronounce it Lezlie. i understand finished properly who they are speaking to. I respond. If I felt it grow to be considerable adequate, i might suited suited them, yet, it truly is in simple terms semantics, and how stupid to get hung up on something so very own.

2016-10-28 15:44:25 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers