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There are dozens of Bible versions, many with significant differences such as the use of "God" or "a god" in John 1 in several. Which should be used?

If the King James Bible, which one? There were five produced, worked on by different people, over a 150 year time period.

King James I's dissatisfaction with the Geneva Bible's strict puritanism and dedication to the teachings of Christ above all else, led to the creation of the King James Bible. Only the last one sufficiently matched the teachings of the Church of England enough to be Authorized. His only clear connection to the work was to lift the capital punishment penalty for doing the work.

2006-12-28 02:27:24 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

It should be noted that no one have any of the original scrolls. The ones from the old testament was last with the destruction of the Temple and the lose of the Ark of the Convenant. As for the New Testament, the oldest scrolls only date back to the 3rd century and are held by the Vatican.

2006-12-28 08:55:21 · update #1

25 answers

Absolutely! and it should be the gospel according to ME!

2006-12-28 02:37:29 · answer #1 · answered by wasn't going 2 3 · 0 0

All new translations compare themselves to the KJV. When the Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered, it was reaffirmed to be the most reliable and correct translation word for word from the original languages of the texts. The KJV exhalts the Deity of Christ and Christ over all more than any of the other translations which omit and change many key words which completely change the meaning and thus result in faulty doctrines. The KJV was written at a time when folks had the English language refined to an art-form. It is not difficult to understand and a simple Bible dictionary or concordance can resolve most of those meanings which we may not be familiar with. No one has ever proven it is not God's Word. It has the least number of errors which do not affect doctrines of any translation that has followed it in English.

2006-12-28 03:01:16 · answer #2 · answered by Lovin' Mary's Lamb 4 · 0 0

"Required" by who?

We have the original language manuscripts from which all translations are made. The trouble is that the words of a foreign language do NOT match up completely with our English words. Choices have to be made and these choices show the bias of the translators.

The only "perfect" solution for a Bible student is to learn the original language , or at least be able to use study books to determine the meaning of the original words of the Bible.

2006-12-28 03:26:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Mow this is only my opinion but i was taught that yes there are other gods but you are only to worship the father and there is only one now we have all heard about satin and if you think and read you will see that satin is a copy cat of the father. i say this because ther is good (god) then ther is evil (satin) you have the holy word (bible) then satin had to create his book as well which is (horoscopes) the fater lucky numbers are 7 and 8. 7 because every thing he did in 7's created the hevans and the earth and 8 = balance so thats how satin came up with his lucky # 6 man you know what this is too much to explain and i dont wont to be the reason for someone elses salvation just pray and ask God and he shall direct your path. god bless you in serch of the truth.

2006-12-28 02:38:57 · answer #4 · answered by Mrs W. 2 · 0 0

Why should all religions follow the same bible! Each religion believes in something different but all have a God but may call him something different. The reason for so many different bibles is because of all the different religions and beliefs out there.

2006-12-28 02:36:22 · answer #5 · answered by kerrberr95 5 · 0 0

Should anyone follow a bible that was created by a king who was dissatisfied? The King James version is one of the worst ones out there. And no, no one should be forced to use any religious text they don't want to use. Why would all religions use a Christian bible?

2006-12-28 02:31:43 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

No!

There was religions existing long before the written word; and many of those religions still exist today, and teach people to live in harmony with others and nature without the use of any scriptures.

There is one place in Africa that are practising the same religion their ancestors followed 70,000 years ago. Writtwn languages only goes back about 500 years or so.

2006-12-28 02:30:40 · answer #7 · answered by Rev. Two Bears 6 · 2 1

I think I found as much truth in the King James Version as any human could handle.

I think God intended the world to have the word of God, in end time days.
People say the apostles were expecting end time days, they do not consider that it is meant for end time days and the apostles did the N.T.
The apostles had nothing to do with the world getting the word for the last days. Did God use King James as he did the king of Babylon? I think God made sure we got it.
I can study all bibles.
I can study the religious beliefs of most all people, I wonder where they get most of them. But they are there.
HOW CAN YOU TELL IF ANY ONE KNOWS WHAT THEY ARE TALKING ABOUT?

You compare what information they give, to the word of God, I use the KJV as I
have studied it 43 years and stay with it as being familiar with it is a great help in my
study.
Where do you place Acts 13:20 [ 450 years from Moses to Samuel ]; Is it correct?
Gal.3:16-18 [ 430 years to law ]; Easy on this one.
Where do you place 1Ki.6:1; From The Exodus 7:7[ Moses age 80 ]; to 4th years of king Solomon. Is that in harmony with all else?
Maybe it is correct from Deut.34:7[ Moses age 120 dies ]; after Arnon heir and only the Promised Land counts.
I do not ask people these questions, I ask the bible.
I also ask myself, if Moses was here today with all this information pulled together at last [ and he was so blessed for his skills that we have a whole world baffeled by them and for sure calling them a lie], what would Moses do?
Before Moses is 1656 to flood, 427 to covenant and at Exo.12:40,41 is 430 at 2513.

THE 450 to Samuel AND THE 480 to Solomon:

Moses born 2433 to 2473 to 2513 and 2513 to 2553 and 2553 after Adam Moses dies.
Acts 13:20 -0450 to 0450 to 0450 and 0480 to 0450 and 0480 4th year of king Solomon
Samuel is at 2883 to 2923 to 2963 and 2993 to 3003 and 3033 after Adam a temple.
Samuel 2883 plus 100 is 2983. David 2989 to 3029 + 4 + 0036 is 3069 and 997 B.C.
Samuel is 1183 to 1143 to 1103 [age 80 ], dies 1083 before Christ.
Acts 13:21 Saul 2949 plus 40 years 2989.
Saul is 1117 less 40 to 1077 and David 40 to 1037 - 4 to 1033 less 36 to 997 before Christ.
Will this work with 1513 less 40 is 1473 from Exodus? Exodus is 857 years after the flood, Aaron and Moses die in 40th Deut.34:7 at 897th year, this is 2553.
Exodus at 857 plus 450 years is 1307. 1103 before Christ.
Moses dies 897 plus 480 is 1377 after flood and 1033 before Christ less 36 is 997.
I think Moses would have done it this way on a real decent and stable scroll with enough room to explain every thing.
The bible is true and correct and if man is not careful, he will see how smart God is and learn the hard way that being careful really is what it is all about.

MY IDEA ALWAYS WAS THAT IF I COULD FIGURE OUT THE MATH IN THE BIBLE AND IF IT WAS IN MY OPINION TRUE AND CORRECT AND IN HARMONY WITH WORLD HISTORY THEN IT ALL WAS CORRECT. I FIND NOTHING MISSING IN THE BIBLE.

2006-12-28 03:32:22 · answer #8 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

I do not want any government branch to make a decision of a religious nature. They have enough trouble keeping track of the funds that we give them and the laws that they enact over and over again & again. I want our people to be able to read, study, and act in a manner that will allow them to be accountable for what they can research and find inthe BIBLE. It is quite easy to find the TRUTH if one studies and researches it. Have a great week.
Eds

2006-12-28 02:37:58 · answer #9 · answered by Eds 7 · 0 0

hi Abby, i think of i understand the communicate you're bearing on, and it sounds like it is likewise possible to be bearing on a remark that I made. i do no longer consider forcing a faith on a toddler in any respect, and don't intend to try this as quickly as I even have them. however, if I had a toddler that wanted to be a Christian or the different faith, i may cause them to wait till they're eighteen (criminal age here) to make an reported determination for themselves. youngsters additionally are searching for an identity, and that isn't the suited time to make probably lifetime committments of any style in case you inquire from me, no longer to point to a faith. yet while somebody is under age and living at domicile, then maximum (respected) religions won't settle for them till they have complete parental permission. And a toddler or teenager going against their mothers and fathers desires and working in the direction of a faith in the back of their decrease back is recipe for disaster. Technically, toddlers don't have "relgious freedom" till they're the right age to settle in this for themselves, as, like I reported, maximum respected religions (with good reason) won't settle for a toddler under criminal age for religious training.

2016-10-19 02:15:09 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

No Because this is a matter of salvation not requirement.

We were all given a the ability to choose.

Any religion that forces you to believe their Bible etc. will not lead a person to heaven.

2006-12-28 02:31:29 · answer #11 · answered by 1saintofGod 6 · 2 0

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