John always said that he was the apostle that Jesus loved. Does this mean that they were gay? If not, what gives him the right to make such a vain statement.
2006-12-27 14:44:04 · 20 answers · asked by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There are about 5 types of love which include romantic love, brotherly love, etc. Not all love is romantic and Jesus definitely wasn't implying that he loved John in that way. Jesus loves everyone, and it's not in that romantic way. And I don't know what you mean about Jesus being vain. Vanity means being self absorbed and caring mostly about yourself. By saying he cared for John, Jesus wasn't implying vanity at all.
2006-12-27 14:49:27 · answer #1 · answered by jennabeanski 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus actually referred to John as the beloved, John did not give himself this distinction. When people argue Jesus was married I always say theirewas more evidence to sugest Jesus was gay because John is accorded as the beloved. Of course neither can be proven.
John, some say was the most devoted apostle to Christianity. He was Christian before he met Christ having first following John the Baptist preparing the way for Jesus, he was one of the first Apostles, one of the few to see the first miracles, the only one to be at the foot of the cross, and the one Jesus entrusted the care of his mother too before he died.
Some say John might have been Jesus' brothers, others claim (which is more likely) John like John the Baptist was a cousin of Jesus and son of the other Mary at the foot of the cross. Almost all accord him a special familial relationship, what exactly that relationship was that made John the most devoted and therefore the beloved apostle we do not know and nothing more from the time is written about their relationship.
2006-12-27 22:57:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The New Testament was originally written in Greek. In the Greek language, there are three different words that are translated as "love" in the English. One of those words is "eros", from which the English word "erotic" comes. It refers to sensual or sexual love, and would include homosexual relations. The second is the word "philos", which refers to "brotherly love" and a friendship. We get the name of Philadelphia (the city of Brotherly Love) from that word.
But it is a third word, "agape", that is used in the scripture you quoted. Agape love refers to a relationship of "respect", in which each person honors the other as something special and precious. It is always non-sexual and non-sensual. It has to do with respect for each others mind, opinions, personality and convictions. It has nothing to do with sex - gay or otherwise.
By using the word "agape" to define that relationship between John and Jesus, the author is making it very plain that they were not having a sexual relationship.
While the English word "love" can have that as one of its meaning, the Greek word actually used "agape", can not.
How could John make that statement that Jesus had an "agape" relationship of respect for him? Probably almost four years of traveling and ministering together. During that time he would know whether Jesus respected him or not.
2006-12-27 22:53:59 · answer #3 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the greek language there are 3 different types of love.
God's love
Brotherly love
Intimate love
Since the english language has only one word for love. It is easy to blaspheme and misunderstand this passage.
Jesus's love for John was not intimate love as that seen in a man/woman relationship. It was not vain either,He (Jesus) was a closer friend to John...(the reasons are not clear).
2006-12-27 22:57:00 · answer #4 · answered by bonsai bobby 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, he was not his lover...
...and, have you ever said...you were someone's best friend? Because that is what the actual translation from the Greek meant... so how is that vain? It is obvious that he was Jesus' best friend...he was the only apostle that stood by Jesus when he was on the cross. Jesus entrusted the care of his mother, Mary, to John. So, I think it was safe for Him to assume he was Jesus' best friend.
2006-12-27 22:51:53 · answer #5 · answered by debi_lockwood 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Whom Jesus loved - This was doubtless John himself. The evangelists are not accustomed to mention their own names when any mark of favor or any good deed is recorded. They did not seek publicity or notoriety. In this case the appellation is more tender and honorable than any mere name. John was admitted to special friendship, perhaps, because the natural disposition of our Saviour was more nearly like the amiableness and mildness of John than any of the other disciples (Robert Hall). The highest honor that can be conferred on any man is to say that Jesus loved him. Yet this is an honor which all may possess, but which none can inherit without his spirit and without loving him. It is an honor which cannot be won by wealth or learning, by beauty or accomplishments, by rank or earthly honors, but only by the possession of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price, 1Pe_3:4; compare Rom_8:9.
2006-12-27 22:48:51 · answer #6 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, Jesus was not gay. That would only be completely contradictory, or at least to my understanding of the Bible.
John was the cousin to Jesus, so in a way it was a family relationship. However, it could also mean that because of John's faith determination to pave the way for Christ, that Jesus felt a stronger in him than his other disciples. However, that is only my speculation.
2006-12-27 22:52:24 · answer #7 · answered by CAP 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, John and Jesus were not Gay. In the Bible love is action. Love means to bless or treat well and to hate means to curse or treat badly. All it was saying is that Jesus was closest in friendship to John and that John was Jesus right hand man.
For example, the bible says that God loved (blessed) Jacob and hated (cursed) his brother Esau. This does not mean that God did not care about Esau. God simply had to choose which of the brothers would be the Father of the jews and he chose Jacob. If God had choosen Esau than the bible would say Esau have I loved and Jacob have I hated.
2006-12-27 22:53:29 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Greek word is agape, which means they loved each other in a completely non-sexual way. The Greek word for sexual love is eros. It just gets confused in the English, where we use 'love' with everything from our favourite song to our best friend to our spouse.
2006-12-27 22:55:25 · answer #9 · answered by Sweet Lei 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Have you never had a friend that you loved that was the same sex as you without engaging in sexual activity. You see, you understand only sexual love because you are an atheist. There are many kinds of love. The love of a mom and child. love of friends, love of God to man. Not every kind of love is about intercourse, you poor soul.
2006-12-27 22:48:37 · answer #10 · answered by angel 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋