Jesus said, "For just as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." My question is this: how did Jesus consider Friday evening to Sunday morning to be "three days and three nights"?
2006-12-27 14:08:56 · 15 answers · asked by Nowhere Man 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
At the request of NH Baritone, I took the verse from Matthew 12:40 from the King James Version of the Bible. It's a messed up version, but it works for these things.
2006-12-27 14:15:50 · update #1
Julia, don't you see my point? I would have looked this over, had Jesus said, "three days", be Jesus added "and three nights" to the passage. "Three days and three nights" can be interpreted to mean exclusively a seventy-two hour period.
2006-12-27 14:17:31 · update #2
You doubt the all mighty! You better read your bible and ask for forgiveness
2006-12-27 14:10:56 · answer #1 · answered by MagikButterfly 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's not but it says within 3 days not 3 full days, but also if you read the scriptures as soon as Jesus Christ died there was Darkness for 3 hours upon the earth. Maybe God looks out for things to happen just the way he says. If you count the darkness that would make 3 days and three nights. Just a thought for you. Matthew 27:45 Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour.
This time is 12 PM until 3 PM (night)and a little bit of day Friday(3PM til 6PM)(day), Saturday (night and day) and Sunday night, and he arose early morning(night and day)Matthew 12:40
For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. Also Jewish days start in evening if you remember they had to get Jesus Christ down before the sabath started Friday evening at dark time. John19:31The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. but at the same time this scripture was in force;Psalm 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
2006-12-27 22:31:31 · answer #2 · answered by sirromo4u 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A superstar can do much better than this, KC. You'll search things out, looking for the truth until you find it, if you truly are a superstar instead of just trying to make yourself look like one. But when you do you'll change your name because you'll find that there are no superstars in the kingdom of God, just people saved from their sins who only want to exalt their Lord.
The day begins at sundown. Jesus suffered all during the Passover and was taken down from the cross on the evening before a High Sabbath, the First Day of Unleavened Bread. That in itself is a testimony. There are many sabbaths and this one began on a Thursday.
2006-12-29 13:28:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
According to the timetable of the Passover most people assume that it was held on Thursday but it most likely was held on Tuesday or Wednesday night!
If Jesus was crucified on Wednesday and died that evening than Jesus would have been in the grave for three nights and three days!
This makes a lot more sense that to say that Jesus was buried on Friday night!
2006-12-27 22:16:51 · answer #4 · answered by zoril 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there is some confusion in this statement regarding proper translation... the Jews concidered a part of a day to be a whole dsy... and the translators did not recon this when it was translated into english...concidering that... fri was a full day and sunday was a full day... the jewish friday beginning at sundown on what we concider thursday.... it should have been translated just three days... Actualy Christ left the tomb sometime right after after the tomb was sealed of Fri. evening.. He spent the time in Paradise misistering to the Faithful who had died befor He came... He then took them to Heaven with him befor retuning to spend the 40 days with his followers.
2006-12-27 22:22:34 · answer #5 · answered by idahomike2 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are basing your question on the assumption that the roman calendar was used...and, that is incorrect. Jews followed day and night differently...I am sorry I cannot explain it in detail, but I have had it explained to me in detail and that is the reason. If the roman calendar has been used...it would have been Thursday -Saturday night, and Friday - Saturday morning...
2006-12-27 22:18:46 · answer #6 · answered by debi_lockwood 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To the ancient Jews, "three days" meant three days on the calendar -- or any part thereof.
It did not mean, as it does in modern times, a 72-hour period.
.
2006-12-27 22:15:05 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Good question. By Jewish reckoning, any part of a day was counted as a full day. ( Some attorneys bill by the same principle).
Also, if I were to get married on Dec. 31st, I can file my taxes as " married" for the entire year.
Jesus was in the tomb Fri, Sat, and part of Sun.
The main thing is HE IS RISEN!
2006-12-27 22:16:24 · answer #8 · answered by revulayshun 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It was actually Wednesday through Saturday, not Friday through Sunday.
2006-12-27 22:19:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ignore the anti-catholic comments. I think it has to do with how the jews measured their days as opposed to how we measure our's today, or something like that.
2006-12-27 22:17:24 · answer #10 · answered by Danny H 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He didn't.
That was the Catholics version that stuck to the calendars.
I don't have a Hebrew calendar so I cannot elaborate.
2006-12-27 22:12:16 · answer #11 · answered by n9wff 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋