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6 answers

Because it was a concept created by the Catholic Church to drag people under the chains of their agenda.

2006-12-27 10:28:09 · answer #1 · answered by vinslave 7 · 0 0

If by "original sin" you mean what is taught by some churches that it was the incident in the Garden of Eden, this answer is easy. No, the prophets did not preach about that incident as being the original sin - sin did not enter in when Adam and Eve were in the Garden. According to scripture, sin happened before Adam and Eve when Satan rebelled and drew one third of Gods children with him; it caused a great war which was the reason God placed each soul into a flesh body, born of woman - so that each person can make up their minds, once and for all, whether they want to follow God or satan. Anyway, I am not saying that the prophets did not preach and teach on what happened in the garden, because the entire end-time prophecies hinge very much on what happened in the garden - that was the foundation from which all other prophecies are built on, and prophecied because of. I'm just saying they did not call it an original sin, because they knew better than that. They were very well learned on scripture.

2006-12-27 18:36:39 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Original sin was invented by Augustine of Hippo, based on a mistranslation of Romans 5:12. Instead of reading "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, because of which all have sinned...", Jerome translated the verse as "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, in whom all have sinned..."

Augustine was looking for a good argument against the Pelagians, who believed that death was natural and that the grace of God was unnecessary for conversion or good works. Augustine argued that all people die because all people inherit the guilt of the sin of Adam.

The Eastern Orthodox, Nestorian, and Monophysite Churches have never accepted the doctrine of original sin.

Linguistic note: the Greek phrase "ef o" was an idiom. It literally means "in which" or "because." In Greek, the subject of this phrase must be the subject of the preceding clause, which is the word "death." In Latin, the subject of this clause can be the subject of any preceding clause. So, Jerome assumed that the subject of this clause was "Adam." He thus rendered "in which" as "in whom," and the doctrine of original sin has existed ever since.

The King James Version accurately translated "ef o" as "for that," but most people think that "for that" is just an archaic form of "because."

The verse actually states that all have sinned because of death, and not that all die because they have sinned.

2006-12-27 18:32:16 · answer #3 · answered by NONAME 7 · 0 0

Actually the whole idea of 'original sin' and the 'prophets' who did not preach it has already been made trivial, since we have already made 'god's word' void.

2006-12-29 01:17:01 · answer #4 · answered by WMD 7 · 0 1

I have been wondering that myself. But if you look at them individually, you can see how their service was to take care of a specific issue of that time. So the teachings stayed focused to serve that purpose.

2006-12-27 18:30:52 · answer #5 · answered by rezany 5 · 0 0

because there were no philosophizers back then..

2006-12-27 18:31:51 · answer #6 · answered by mich 2 · 0 0

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