Pastor Billy says: this sounds like a double negative. Bible alone? did Jesus use bible alone? Jesus used example, Jesus did quote the prophets from OT scripture but he did not use bible alone to explain our faith. Bible alone is a fallacy created some 1500 years after Jesus Christ once the Christian priesthood was rejected at the time of the Protestant Reformation. Without a valid ministrial priesthood there was a large void of authority. To fill the void this doctrine of "bible alone" or sola scriptura in latin was invented. In all truth no Protestant community really practises bible alone because it is impossible. They each follow their own individual authority to interpret, or the biblical interpretation of their secular pastors, preachers, elders or reverend. If anyone was truly lead by "bible alone" then why are so many Protestant denominations all claiming to be led by the Holy Spirit preaching bible alone and yet not in agreement on what is written? Surely this confusion is not of the Holy Spirit.
To Preacher,
2Tim3:16 doesn't support what you what it to. I suggest reading the entire chapter better yet the entire letter or entire bible. When taken in proper context it is written (2Tim3:16) that scripture is profitable meaning helpful but this verse does not convey the understanding of scripture being our sole authority or final authority. If you still want to believe this you had better throw out your New Testament portion of your Christian bible because as we know from reading the earlier verses of this chapter St. Paul is talking about the scripture he knew from his youth and not the entire Christian bible as we followers of Christ have today!
Preacher once again refrain from answering questions you are not educated to answer. "for it better a malstone hung round your neck............."
Suzanne,
you remind me of the Pharisees whom our Lord told and I paraphrase "you search the scriptures and yet do not know me".
I forgot not the verses you attempt to instruct me about I do remember Paul explaining to Timothy about the scriptures of his youth and not the scriptures that remains to be written. Be mindful Sue as Paul writes to Timothy he had not finished all his letters that form the NT and either had these letters been put into general circulation as they were directed to individuals or precise local churches, the NT had not been written. If you truly want to claim 2Tim3:16 is proof-text for "bible alone" you need to be honest and eliminate the NT which Paul was not referring to in 2Timothy.
Edit 2: Suzanne "my soul magnifies the Lord" Peace of Christ.
2006-12-27 04:04:50
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The Biblical message breathed out by God is revelation in written form. (2 Timothy 3:15-16). The Biblical claim is that what God has inspired was His written word (2 Peter 1:20-21). When the Lord Jesus Christ said, “the Scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35), He was speaking of God’s written word. The events, actions, commandments, and truths from God are given to us in propositional form, i.e. logical, written sentences. God’s declaration in Scripture is that it and it alone, is this final authority in all matters of faith and morals.
In stating “It is written,” the Lord used the exact same phrase that is used in the Holy Bible forty six times. The persistence of the repeated phrase underlines its importance. The Lord’s total acceptance of the authority of the Old Testament is evident in His words found in Matthew 5:17-18:
“Think not that I came to destroy the law or the prophets: I am not come to destroy but to fulfill. For verily, I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled.”
2006-12-27 03:47:50
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answer #2
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answered by missourim43 6
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Since I have read the questions you've asked on the subject before this, and have a pretty good idea why you are asking them, my two Bible quotes to you are Proverbs 26:4; Matthew 7:6.
2006-12-27 03:45:43
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answer #3
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answered by rhino 6
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Read 2 Timothy 3:16.
2006-12-27 03:46:15
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answer #4
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answered by Preacher 6
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Paul wrote that all Scripture is inspired by God, and is valuable for instruction, reproof, correction. Maybe in Timothy. But when he wrote that, there was New Testament, and his epistles were not canonical. So he was referring to the Old Testament.
2006-12-27 03:47:48
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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When Jesus rebuked the Sadducees, He said "You are mistaken, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of God." (Matt. 22:29) He didn't say "you are mistaken, not knowing the Scriptures nor the power of the priest's traditions." Repeatedly, Jesus refers us to ONE source: God's written words, the Scriptures. References include: Matt. 21:42, 26:54 and 56; Mark 12:10 and 24, 14:49, 15:28; Luke 4:21, 24:27, 24:32 and 44-45; and numerous such references in John.
Romans 15:4: "For whatever things were written before were written for our learning, that we through the patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope."
Romans 16:25 Now to Him who is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery kept secret since the world began 26 but now made manifest, and by the prophetic Scriptures made known to all nations, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, for obedience to the faith— 27 to God, alone wise, be glory through Jesus Christ forever. Amen.
(Notice here, Paul EXPLICITLY writes that the written Word of God revealed by Scripture is our way of being OBEDIENT TO THE FAITH.)
And most convincingly ---
2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
(Notice that God-given Scripture ALONE is what makes the "man of God ... complete." NOT traditions of men.)
EDIT: "Pastor Billy," you forget 2 Tim. 3:17 says "COMPLETE." It doesn't say the man of God is incomplete, now does it??? And the Scripture Paul is referring to are the scrolls of the Hebrew Bible, prior to their compilation into one Book.
EDIT 2: "Pastor" Billy, a class in Biblical exegesis would help your difficulties.
2006-12-27 04:09:35
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answer #6
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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The ESV comes from a similar corrupt manuscripts because of the fact the NWT. instruct them Jude 9,King James Bible. Michael the archangel did no longer rebuke devil. yet in Matthew 4 and different places Jesus DID rebuke devil.
2016-10-28 11:28:47
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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We know that we are NOT to add to or take from GOD's BOOK. It was written by John at Patmos in Revelation 22:18For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: 19And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
Have a great week!
Eds
2006-12-27 03:51:41
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answer #8
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answered by Eds 7
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Yes...all of the letters that spell "bible alone" are printed somewhere in the Bible. All you have to do is find them, and put them in the correct order.
2006-12-27 03:44:47
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answer #9
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answered by 4999_Basque 6
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If you want a Bible quite, you have to read the Bible. It isn't an easy read.
2006-12-27 03:48:07
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answer #10
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answered by campbelp2002 7
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