The Bible says that Joseph was a descendant of David yes? So if he was not the father of Jesus, how could Jesus fullfill a prophecy that claimed he would come from the bloodline of David?
Please explain in 9 words or less.. okay, ignore that bit.
2006-12-27 00:13:31 · 32 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Note: The Bible only states that Joseph was of the house of David. It is only hypothesised by certain Christian scholars that Mary was of the same house.
2006-12-27 00:20:45 · update #1
Feel free to answer with "Mary was also of the hosue of David" but please give something to back this up... Just saying it doesn't mean anything.
2006-12-27 00:24:11 · update #2
Betty Boop ~ Alright, calm down. My personal opinion is exactly what you just said. I also don't believe that Mary remained a virgin throughout the rest of her life, I just thought I'd see if anyone knew of any other Biblical links to David via Mary.
2006-12-27 00:27:14 · update #3
dude, everybody knows that jesus was a time-travelling hermaphrodite.
2006-12-27 00:16:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 7⤋
There are two genealogies in the Bible. Both Mary and Jesus were descendants of David. From Joseph, Jesus acquired legal rights to the throne of David. Through Mary, He had a direct bloodline.
2006-12-27 00:29:09 · answer #2 · answered by ted.nardo 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That, my friend, is an excellent and very observant question.
In the case of Jesus and Joseph, Jesus is a LEGAL descendant. I have heard sermons that indicate that Mary is also a descendant of David, which would make Jesus a blood relation through Mary. I'm trying to find scripture to back that up. David would be the head of the tribe of Judah (of the 12 tribes of Israel). In Luke 1 we read about Elizabeth, Mary's cousin. I have to do more research on this subject.
Don't doubt the bible though. If it says that Jesus was of the line of David, then he was. We just need to figure out through which lines.
2006-12-27 00:21:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Mary was not a virgin. Mark makes not mention of it, neither does John. Paul never mentions it, even when describing Christ's origins and purpose. Odd, huh? Only Matthew and Luke mention it, once each, and the details differ considerably [two witnesses who don't agree, and they are not really even witnesses].
The problem gets bigger, though. If Mary was Jesus' only human parent, why is Jesus male? There was no Y chromosome in Mary. If God miraculously made a Y chromosome, why didn't he just make Jesus appear and just skip the whole birth thing altogether? In fact, if God's purpose was to become a human being and be like us so he could save us as a human being, doesn't the virgin birth idea ruin that? I mean, if Jesus has only one human parent, and that parent is not the same gender as he is, then he is -very- different from us, and does not bridge the gap between man and God at all.
2006-12-27 01:08:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Mary was from another branch of the genealogical tree of David. Also, she had several children by Joseph.. Indicating she did not remain a virgin for the remainder of her life.
2006-12-27 01:27:22 · answer #5 · answered by mrcricket1932 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Both Joseph and Mary were in the Davidic line, but each from a separate branch.
2006-12-27 00:16:33 · answer #6 · answered by Preacher 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
You asked a very intelligent question. ( :
In understanding the lineage of Mary, it takes more than a minute to understand it.
I have a link for you that will show you that Mary being in the line of David is not enough, according to this link and according to the Law of Moses:
http://www.direct.ca/trinity/loophole.html
You'll find that God picks precisely who He needed to pick in order to fulfil His word. He does that kind of thing all throughout the Bible.
2006-12-27 00:31:37 · answer #7 · answered by Christian Sinner 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because, Jesus was still concidered the son of Joseph, even though he was not the birth son of Joseph. I don't think it was widely known that Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus, only Joseph, Elizabeth and possibly Zachariah (the last two were relatives of Mary's with whom she stayed for a while). The people of the time would have concidered Jesus Joseph's son, thus of the line of David.
2006-12-27 00:16:49 · answer #8 · answered by sister steph 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Mary and Joseph were both from David's line.
2006-12-27 00:20:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
People: It's got nothing to do with Mary! She was only there to determine if Jesus would be Jewish or not!
Since Joseph wasn't Jesus' biological dad, he (jesus) cannot be considered the Messiah through his mom! The bloddline had to be traced thru the dad, not the mom!
2006-12-27 00:37:36 · answer #10 · answered by -♦One-♦-Love♦- 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because Mary was also of the line of David.
EDIT: in your follow-up question, you write it's only a hypothesis that Luke's genealogy pertains to Mary. This is not correct -- in fact, the original Greek text explicitly demonstrates the Luke genealogy is Mary's. You can read more here, in the section titled "Luke's Genealogy":
http://www.jewsforjesus.org/publications/issues/5_6/genealogy
2006-12-27 00:20:49 · answer #11 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋